A new nurse is working on a SWOT analysis. The nurse is considering the influences that could hinder career planning, such as changes in policies and regulations. Which of the following is most likely the section of the SWOT analysis under consideration?
Power.
Strengths.
Opportunities.
Threats.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Power: This term does not specifically align with any section of a SWOT analysis. While it may refer to the influence of stakeholders or organizations in a broader context, it is not a recognized category in the SWOT framework. The focus of power would be more relevant in a different strategic analysis model.
B. Strengths: This section of the SWOT analysis pertains to internal attributes and resources that give the individual or organization an advantage. Examples include skills, experience, and positive relationships. Since the nurse is considering external factors that could hinder career planning, strengths are not the relevant focus here.
C. Opportunities: This part of the SWOT analysis addresses external factors that could provide advantages or beneficial developments for career growth. Opportunities might include advancements in healthcare technology, educational programs, or mentorship. However, the influences hindering career planning are not captured under opportunities.
D. Threats: This section encompasses external factors that pose risks or challenges to achieving goals, such as changes in policies and regulations that could negatively impact career progression. The nurse is correctly identifying these hindrances, which fall under threats, as they represent potential obstacles to successful career planning and development.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. To facilitate weaning off the mechanical ventilator. While PEEP is an important component of mechanical ventilation, its primary function is not to facilitate weaning. Instead, it improves oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse. Weaning involves gradually reducing ventilatory support, but PEEP is typically adjusted based on oxygenation needs rather than as a direct step in weaning.
B. To decrease trapped oxygen in the alveoli. PEEP does not decrease trapped oxygen; instead, it maintains alveolar patency and prevents atelectasis. In conditions like ARDS, alveoli tend to collapse due to fluid accumulation and inflammation, and PEEP helps counteract this collapse to improve gas exchange. Reducing "trapped" oxygen is not a function of PEEP.
C. To promote independent breathing efforts. PEEP itself does not promote spontaneous breathing; instead, it provides positive pressure at the end of exhalation to improve oxygenation. In fact, high levels of PEEP can suppress spontaneous breathing by increasing intrathoracic pressure, requiring careful adjustment to balance oxygenation and ventilatory effort.
D. To keep the airways and small lung spaces open. PEEP prevents alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration. This improves oxygenation and gas exchange, which is critical in ARDS, where alveoli are prone to collapse due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. Keeping alveoli open reduces shunting and improves oxygen delivery to tissues.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Reports routinely list the identification number of any equipment involved: This practice is appropriate and helps in tracking any equipment-related issues. Including identification numbers can assist in identifying problems with specific devices or tools and does not represent a problem that needs to be reported.
B. Reports routinely include the client's hospital number: Including the client's hospital number in reports is standard practice for maintaining accurate records and ensuring proper tracking of incidents related to specific patients. This does not indicate a problem and is essential for accountability in healthcare reporting.
C. Reports routinely are completed within 24 hr after the incident: Timeliness in completing incident reports is important, and completing them within 24 hours is a best practice. This indicates a proactive approach to addressing incidents and does not represent a problem that needs to be reported to the risk manager.
D. Reports routinely omit the names of witnesses to the occurrence: This is a significant issue that should be reported to the risk manager. Witnesses can provide valuable information about the circumstances surrounding an incident, and their names should be documented for follow-up and investigation. Omitting this information could hinder the thoroughness of the incident review and the organization’s ability to address and prevent future occurrences effectively.
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