A nurse is taking a class about patient safety. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm?

Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors

As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable

Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints

Medication errors are adverse events

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors: While poorly coordinated care can lead to adverse events, nosocomial infections are typically classified as healthcare-associated infections rather than errors. Errors generally refer to mistakes made in clinical practice that can lead to harm, whereas nosocomial infections are outcomes that arise from the healthcare environment.
B. As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable: This statement is true and highlights the significant opportunity for improvement in patient safety. Recognizing that a large percentage of medication errors can be prevented underscores the importance of implementing safety protocols, effective communication, and education to reduce the likelihood of errors occurring in clinical practice.
C. Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints: This statement is misleading, as errors of execution typically refer to mistakes made during the performance of a task rather than intentional actions. These errors often occur due to lack of knowledge, skill, or attention rather than being intentional, and they are not solely attributed to time or resource constraints.
D. Medication errors are adverse events: While medication errors can lead to adverse events, not all medication errors result in harm. An adverse event is defined as an injury caused by medical management rather than the underlying condition of the patient, so this statement is not entirely accurate. Medication errors can be classified as near misses or adverse events, depending on whether they resulted in harm to the patient.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Limit oral fluids to minimize labored breathing: This action is not appropriate, as adequate hydration is important for thinning mucus secretions, making it easier for the client to expectorate them. Limiting fluids could lead to thicker secretions, which may worsen the client’s respiratory distress and increase the difficulty of clearing secretions. Therefore, this approach is not suitable for a client with pneumonia and respiratory compromise.
B. Perform pursed-lip breathing to expel trapped carbon dioxide from the alveoli: While pursed-lip breathing can help with exhalation and improve oxygenation, it does not directly address the need to mobilize and clear copious secretions. This technique is beneficial in managing dyspnea and improving ventilation but is not the priority action when the client has significant secretions that need to be cleared.
C. Lie in a low Fowler's position to promote lung expansion: A low Fowler's position (30 degrees) is less effective for promoting lung expansion compared to higher Fowler's positions. Semi-Fowler's (30-45 degrees) or high Fowler's (greater than 45 degrees) positions are more beneficial for improving lung expansion and facilitating breathing in clients with respiratory distress. Therefore, this option does not provide the most effective intervention for the client's condition.
D. Perform hourly incentive spirometry to inflate lungs and mobilize secretions: This is the priority action for the nurse to encourage, as incentive spirometry is specifically designed to help inflate the lungs and improve lung function. It promotes deep breathing, which can enhance ventilation, prevent atelectasis, and facilitate the mobilization of secretions. Regular use of incentive spirometry is essential in managing pneumonia and can significantly improve respiratory outcomes for the client.

A. Prepare to assist with intubation of the client B. Place a tracheostomy tray at the client's bedside C. Administer IV prophylaxis for thromboembolism. D. Administer IV prophylaxis for stress ulcers.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Prepare to assist with intubation of the client: This action should be prioritized for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). ARDS can lead to significant respiratory distress and hypoxemia, requiring advanced airway management. Assisting with intubation ensures that the client receives adequate ventilation and oxygenation, which is critical in managing ARDS effectively. Immediate preparation for intubation is essential to prevent further deterioration of the client’s respiratory status.
B. Place a tracheostomy tray at the client's bedside: While having a tracheostomy tray available can be important in cases of prolonged respiratory failure, this action is not the immediate priority. The focus should be on ensuring proper airway management and oxygenation first. A tracheostomy is typically considered if the client requires long-term ventilation, but initial intervention for ARDS often involves intubation.
C. Administer IV prophylaxis for thromboembolism: While providing prophylaxis for thromboembolism is important in the overall management of patients at risk, especially in those with limited mobility, it is not the first priority in an acute situation. The immediate need is to address the client’s respiratory distress and ensure proper ventilation.
D. Administer IV prophylaxis for stress ulcers: Providing prophylaxis for stress ulcers is also a relevant consideration, particularly in critically ill patients. However, it is not an urgent action compared to securing the airway and ensuring effective oxygenation. Addressing respiratory failure and maintaining airway patency should take precedence in the acute management of ARDS.

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A nurse is taking a class about patient safety. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pneumonia and assesses labored breathing and copious tracheobronchial secretions. What priority action should the nurse encourage with the client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client has been diagnosed in the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following actions should a nurse perform first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?

A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride elixir 40 mEq divided into 2 equal doses every 12 hr. Available is 6.7 mEq/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

A nurse is working with a colleague who frequently interrupts and takes over during client care discussions. The nurse wants to assertively address this behavior to ensure effective teamwork. Which response by the nurse demonstrates assertive behavior?

A nurse is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

A nurse is caring for a client who asks how albuterol helps his breathing. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a client immediately following endotracheal intubation. The nurse should assess the client for complications by performing which of the following priority action?