A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination
Provide an in-service on medication administration to at the nurses
Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors
Renew the events lead up to each medication administration error
The Correct Answer is D
A. Requiring staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination: While competency assessments are essential, initiating this as the first strategy may not address the root causes of medication administration errors. It's important to first understand the specific factors contributing to errors by reviewing the events leading up to each error before implementing competency assessments. This allows for a targeted approach to addressing gaps in knowledge or skills related to medication administration.
B. Providing an in-service on medication administration to all nurses: While education and training are valuable components of error reduction strategies, providing an in-service as the first step may not address the underlying system issues contributing to medication errors. Education should complement other interventions aimed at improving the medication administration process, such as system redesign or standardization of practices.
C. Developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors: Implementing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors is important for learning from mistakes and preventing recurrence. However, developing such a program should be informed by a thorough analysis of the events leading to errors. Without understanding the root causes, it may be challenging to develop effective improvement initiatives.
D. Reviewing the events leading up to each medication administration error: This strategy is the most appropriate initial step. Conducting a detailed review of each error allows the committee to identify patterns, common factors, and system issues contributing to medication errors. By understanding the specific circumstances surrounding each error, the committee can develop targeted interventions to address root causes and prevent future errors. This approach aligns with the principles of continuous quality improvement, focusing on data-driven analysis and proactive problem-solving.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Liver function tests: While lithium can affect liver function in some cases, routine liver function tests are not typically required before administering lithium. These tests are more relevant for medications metabolized by the liver.
B. Thyroid hormone assay: This is the correct action. Regular monitoring of thyroid function, including thyroid hormone levels, is essential for clients taking lithium, as lithium therapy can lead to hypothyroidism or exacerbate preexisting thyroid conditions. Checking thyroid function before administering lithium helps ensure the client's thyroid status is within the therapeutic range and identifies any abnormalities that may require intervention.
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not directly relevant to monitoring lithium therapy. While lithium can affect renal function and electrolyte balance, ESR does not specifically assess these parameters.
D. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP): BNP is a marker of cardiac function and is not routinely monitored in clients taking lithium. While lithium can have cardiovascular effects, routine BNP testing is not necessary before administering lithium. Monitoring for cardiovascular side effects of lithium typically involves assessing for symptoms such as arrhythmias or changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. CD4 T cell count 180 cells/mm3: In a client with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T cell count is crucial for assessing immune function and determining the progression of the disease. A CD4 T cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections, making it the priority laboratory value to monitor in this client.
B. Platelets 150,000/mm3: While platelet count is important for assessing clotting function, it is not the priority laboratory value in a client with HIV. Thrombocytopenia can occur in HIV but is often secondary to other factors such as medication side effects or opportunistic infections. However, a platelet count within the normal range of 150,000/mm3 is reassuring and does not require immediate intervention.
C. WBC 5000 mm3: White blood cell (WBC) count is essential for assessing overall immune function, but it is not the priority laboratory value in a client with HIV. A WBC count of 5000 mm3 is within the normal range and does not require urgent attention.
D. Positive Western blot test: While a positive Western blot test confirms HIV infection, it does not provide information about the client's current immune status or the need for immediate intervention. Confirmatory tests such as Western blot are important for diagnosis, but they do not provide ongoing monitoring of disease progression or immune function.
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