A mental health nurse is preparing a client who has chronic anxiety for discharge from the psychiatric unit. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's discharge plan?
Identify triggers for anxiety reactions.
Contact the crisis counselor once a week.
Eliminate stress and anxiety from daily life.
Try to repress feelings of anxiety.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Identifying triggers for anxiety reactions is a crucial part of managing chronic anxiety. By recognizing what situations, thoughts, or feelings provoke anxiety, the client can begin to develop coping strategies to handle these triggers effectively. This approach is often used in cognitive-behavioral therapy, which is a common treatment for anxiety disorders.
Choice B rationale: While contacting a crisis counselor can be helpful in acute situations, it may not be necessary for a client with chronic anxiety to do so on a weekly basis. Regular therapy sessions with a mental health professional would likely be more beneficial, as they can provide ongoing support and help the client develop long-term coping strategies.
Choice C rationale: It’s unrealistic and unfeasible to completely eliminate stress and anxiety from daily life. Stress is a normal part of life, and everyone experiences it to some degree. Instead, the focus should be on managing stress and anxiety effectively through techniques such as relaxation exercises, mindfulness, and cognitive-behavioral strategies.
Choice D rationale: Trying to repress feelings of anxiety can actually exacerbate them. It’s important for individuals with anxiety disorders to acknowledge their feelings and learn how to manage them, rather than trying to suppress them. Repression can lead to increased anxiety and other mental health issues over time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While a client's unwillingness to accept treatment can be a challenge, it does not, in and of itself, meet the criteria for involuntary hospitalization beyond the initial 72-hour hold.
Forced treatment without a clear and imminent risk of harm can violate a patient's autonomy and rights.
It's crucial for healthcare professionals to balance a patient's right to self-determination with the need to protect individuals from harm.
Choice B rationale:
A client's plan to move out of state, even if it's considered a disruptive decision, does not constitute grounds for involuntary hospitalization.
Individuals have the right to freedom of movement and to make choices about their life, even if those choices are perceived as unwise or problematic.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer because it aligns with the fundamental principle of involuntary hospitalization: to protect individuals who pose a serious risk of harm to themselves or others due to a mental health condition.
This rationale is rooted in the ethical and legal obligation to prevent harm and ensure public safety.
Choice D rationale:
A client's dislike of a neighbor is not a valid reason for involuntary hospitalization. Personal opinions or feelings, even if negative, do not automatically translate into a risk of harm that would justify involuntary confinement.
Correct Answer is ["A","E","G"]
Explanation
The correct answer/s is Choice/s A, E, and G.
Choice A rationale: Administering 0.9% sodium chloride IV is a common practice in emergency departments to ensure the patient is well-hydrated. This is particularly important for patients experiencing acute mania, as they may have neglected their physical health, including hydration, during their manic episode.
Choice B rationale: Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepines and is typically used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.
Choice C rationale: Preparing the client for intubation is usually reserved for situations where the patient is unable to maintain their own airway or adequate ventilation. This is not typically necessary in cases of acute mania unless there are other complicating factors.
Choice D rationale: Beginning chest compressions is a response to cardiac arrest. There is no indication in the that the patient is experiencing cardiac arrest, so this would not be a typical anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania.
Choice E rationale: Administering IV naloxone is done in cases of suspected opioid overdose. While it’s not directly related to treating acute mania, it’s possible that the patient could have comorbid substance use issues, given the high rate of comorbidity between bipolar disorder and substance use disorders.
Choice F rationale: Administering activated charcoal is done in cases of certain types of poisoning or drug overdose. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.
Choice G rationale: Preparing the client for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) could be an appropriate anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania. ECT is considered a highly effective treatment for severe mania, particularly when other treatments have failed or when rapid stabilization is required.
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