A male client reports to the on-call clinic nurse that he took two tablets of 10 mg lisinopril by mouth two hours ago and his skin now feels flushed. He reports a history of stable angina, but denies experiencing any chest pain at the moment or recently. Which action should the nurse take?
Instruct the client to increase his intake of oral fluids until the skin flushing is relieved.
Advise the client to place one nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue as a precaution.
Tell the client to have someone bring him to an emergency department immediately.
Reassure the client that facial flushing is a common side effect of the medication.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: Increasing oral fluids may help with hydration, but it will not reduce skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE. inhibitor that dilates blood vessels and lowers blood pressure. Flushing occurs due to increased blood flow to the skin.
Choice B: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels and reduces chest pain caused by angina. It is not indicated for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Moreover, nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure further and cause hypotension, headache, dizziness, and fainting.
Choice C: Going to an emergency department is not necessary for skin flushing caused by lisinopril. Flushing is not a sign of an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which would require immediate medical attention. Flushing is also not a symptom of a heart attack or stroke, which would present with other signs such as chest pain, shortness of breath, arm numbness, or slurred speech.
Choice D: Reassuring the client that facial flushing is a common side effect of lisinopril is the best action for the nurse to take. Flushing is not harmful or dangerous, and it usually subsides within a few hours. The nurse should explain the mechanism of action of lisinopril and its benefits for lowering blood pressure and preventing angina. The nurse should also advise the client to monitor his blood pressure regularly and report any signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice B reason: Arranging diet schedule around three regular meals a day is not a sufficient point for disease and symptom management for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a condition that affects the body's ability to produce or use insulin, a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels. Eating three regular meals a day may not be enough to control blood glucose levels and prevent complications such as hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. The nurse should teach the client to follow a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and to eat smaller portions more frequently throughout the day.
Choice C reason: Using garlic, herbs, and spices will improve the flavor of food is not a specific point for disease and symptom management for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Garlic, herbs, and spices are natural ingredients that can enhance the taste and aroma of food, but they do not have a direct impact on blood glucose levels or diabetes complications. The nurse should teach the client to limit the intake of salt, sugar, and saturated fats, and to choose foods that are low in glycemic index and high in antioxidants.
Choice D reason: Inspecting feet every month for ingrown nails, cuts, and calluses is not a frequent enough point for disease and symptom management for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus can cause damage to the blood vessels and nerves in the feet, leading to reduced sensation, poor circulation, infection, ulceration, and amputation. The nurse should teach the client to inspect feet every day for any signs of injury or infection, and to wash, dry, moisturize, and protect them properly. The nurse should also advise the client to wear comfortable shoes and socks, avoid walking barefoot, and seek medical attention for any foot problems.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C is correct because providing supplemental oxygen is the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. A pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow, causing hypoxia and respiratory distress. The nurse should administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygenation and prevent further complications.
Choice A is incorrect because notifying the healthcare provider is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider after providing supplemental oxygen and assessing the client's vital signs and symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because preparing a continuous heparin infusion per protocol is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. Heparin is an anticoagulant that can prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of recurrence, but it does not dissolve existing clots or improve oxygenation. The nurse should prepare a heparin infusion after obtaining a prescription from the healthcare provider and confirming the diagnosis with diagnostic tests.
Choice D is incorrect because bringing the emergency crash cart to the bedside is not the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolus. The emergency crash cart contains equipment and medications that can be used in case of cardiac arrest or other emergencies, but it does not address the immediate need of oxygenation. The nurse should bring the emergency crash cart to the bedside after providing supplemental oxygen and assessing the client's condition.
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