A client with depression has been taking citalopram, an SSRI, for several months and has presented for a follow-up assessment. The client tells the nurse, "I've been reading a lot online about the benefits of St. John's wort for depression, so I've started taking it once per day." In addition to referring the client to the provider, what is the nurse's best response?
"There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged."
"Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous."
"It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant."
"It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "There can be an unsafe reaction between your antidepressant and St. John's wort, which is why taking them both is discouraged." is correct; St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of SSRIs and may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it vital for the nurse to address this safety concern.
B. "Herbal remedies often contain unknown doses of the desired ingredient, which can be dangerous." is a valid point, but it does not specifically address the interaction with the client’s current medication.
C. "It's very important that you not take the St. John's wort at the same time of day as your antidepressant." is misleading; the concern is not just about timing but about taking both together at all.
D. "It's very important that you comply with your prescribed treatment." while true, this response does not directly address the specific risks associated with combining St. John's wort and citalopram.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.
B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.
C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.
D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Acetaminophen is primarily an analgesic and antipyretic; it does not have anti-inflammatory properties, so it will not reduce swelling or inflammation.
B. While some medications may take time to show effects, this is not applicable to acetaminophen regarding inflammation, as it does not address that symptom.
C. Although acetaminophen is used for pain relief, saying it has only clinical use for pain is misleading; it is not effective for inflammation.
D. Monitoring for bleeding is important for medications that can affect coagulation, such as NSAIDs, but acetaminophen does not typically cause this risk.
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