A 46-year-old client with a high body-mass index and a sedentary lifestyle has been diagnosed with hypertension after serial blood pressure readings. The clinician has opted to begin the client on lisinopril (Zestril). The nurse should recognize that the therapeutic effect of this drug is achieved in what way?
By directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle
By blocking aldosterone from binding to mineralocorticoid receptors
By blocking the movement of calcium ions into arterial smooth muscles
By inhibiting the transformation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
The Correct Answer is D
A. By directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle is not how lisinopril primarily works; it does not act directly on smooth muscle but rather affects hormonal pathways.
B. By blocking aldosterone from binding to mineralocorticoid receptors is a secondary effect of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors but not the primary action of lisinopril itself.
C. By blocking the movement of calcium ions into arterial smooth muscles describes the action of calcium channel blockers, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
D. By inhibiting the transformation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is the correct answer because lisinopril inhibits the ACE enzyme, reducing the production of angiotensin II, which lowers blood pressure and decreases strain on the heart.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Phenylephrine is a decongestant that can raise blood pressure, making it contraindicated for individuals with hypertension. Advising a patient with hypertension to avoid phenylephrine is essential to prevent potential cardiovascular complications.
B. While patients with diabetes should be cautious about certain medications, phenylephrine is not specifically contraindicated in this condition.
C. A 17-year-old female with an upper respiratory infection typically does not have contraindications for phenylephrine unless there are underlying conditions not mentioned.
D. Gout does not have a direct contraindication for phenylephrine use, so the patient may not need to avoid it unless other health issues are present.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Bruising and bleeding gums are not indicative of an allergic reaction, which would typically present with different symptoms such as rash, itching, or swelling. Administering antihistamines would not address the underlying issue.
B. The development of bruising and bleeding gums in a patient on heparin therapy suggests a bleeding complication, which is a known risk of anticoagulation therapy. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to assess the situation and possibly adjust treatment or perform further evaluations.
C. While hypersensitivity reactions can occur with medications, the symptoms presented here are more aligned with bleeding complications than with hypersensitivity. Discontinuing heparin without consulting the provider could put the patient at risk for thromboembolic events.
D. The symptoms do not indicate an infection; therefore, initiating antibiotic therapy would not be appropriate in this context.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
