A patient on warfarin is found to have an INR of 5.0. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
Administer vitamin K per provider's orders.
Increase the dose of warfarin and monitor INR more frequently per provider's orders.
Discontinue warfarin and administer a dose of heparin per provider's orders.
Continue warfarin and monitor for any symptoms of bleeding per provider's orders.
The Correct Answer is A
A. An INR of 5.0 indicates a significantly increased risk of bleeding, and administering vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. This is a critical intervention to restore coagulation.
B. Increasing the dose of warfarin is inappropriate in this scenario because the INR is already elevated; it would further increase bleeding risk.
C. While heparin can be used for anticoagulation, it is not appropriate to administer it while the INR is dangerously high without reversing the warfarin first.
D. Continuing warfarin is unsafe at this INR level due to the high risk of bleeding; monitoring for symptoms without intervention is not adequate care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Try not to swallow while the pill dissolves is correct because sublingual medications are designed to be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes under the tongue, and swallowing may hinder this absorption.
B. Take a big drink of water and swallow the pill is incorrect because sublingual medications should not be swallowed with water as they need to dissolve under the tongue.
C. Swallow frequently to get the best benefit is incorrect, as this can interfere with the absorption of the medication.
D. Chew the pill so it will dissolve faster is incorrect since chewing may destroy the sublingual formulation, preventing it from working as intended.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Improved sleep is correct; an effective antidepressant can help normalize sleep patterns, which is a positive indicator of treatment efficacy.
B. Decreased anxiety is correct; fluoxetine is also effective in treating anxiety symptoms, so a reduction indicates the medication is working.
C. Reduced appetite is incorrect; while some individuals may experience appetite changes, a reduced appetite is not an indicator of effectiveness and could indicate a side effect.
D. Weight loss is incorrect; while weight loss can occur, it is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of fluoxetine and can also signify side effects.
E. Interest in physical activity is correct; an increase in motivation and engagement in activities is a strong indicator of improvement in depressive symptoms.
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