A client with atopic dermatitis is ordered a potent topical corticosteroid to be covered with an occlusive dressing.
To address a potential client problem associated with this treatment, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury.
To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase?
Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid.
Related to vasodilatory effects of the topical corticosteroid.
Related to potential interactions between the topical corticosteroid and other ordered drugs.
Related to topical corticosteroid application to the face, neck, and intertriginous sites.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Percutaneous absorption of topical corticosteroids increases systemic exposure, potentially causing side effects like adrenal suppression, hyperglycemia, and Cushing's syndrome. This is particularly significant when potent corticosteroids are applied to large body areas or under occlusive dressings, enhancing absorption and systemic effects.
Choice B rationale
Topical corticosteroids primarily induce vasoconstriction, not vasodilation, reducing inflammation and redness in skin conditions. Incorrect understanding of their vasodilatory effects may misguide nursing interventions, making it less relevant to the injury risk in atopic dermatitis treatments.
Choice C rationale
Topical corticosteroids have minimal systemic interactions compared to oral or intravenous forms, making drug interaction concerns less pertinent. The risk of significant drug interactions is low unless the medication is systemically absorbed in substantial amounts.
Choice D rationale
Application to face, neck, and intertriginous sites increases the risk of local side effects like skin atrophy, but is not a primary concern for systemic injury risk. These areas have thinner skin, enhancing absorption and risk of local adverse effects, but not necessarily systemic harm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cranial nerve VII (Facial nerve) controls muscles of facial expression and functions in taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, not balance.
Choice B rationale
Cranial nerve VI (Abducens nerve) controls lateral eye movement and has no role in balance or proprioception.
Choice C rationale
Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve) is responsible for hearing and balance. A positive Romberg test indicates issues with proprioception or vestibular function, which is directly linked to this nerve.
Choice D rationale
Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve) involves taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue and some swallowing functions, not balance.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fasting for at least 8 hours is usually required for certain diagnostic tests that involve anesthesia or contrast media, but it is not necessary for a bone scan. A bone scan typically involves the injection of a radioactive tracer and does not require fasting.
Choice B rationale
Completion of a bowel cleansing regimen is necessary for certain gastrointestinal procedures such as colonoscopy, but it is not relevant for a bone scan. A bone scan focuses on detecting bone abnormalities and does not involve the digestive system.
Choice C rationale
Emptying the bladder is important before a bone scan to ensure clear imaging of the pelvic bones. A full bladder can obscure the view and interfere with the accuracy of the scan. Ensuring the bladder is empty helps in obtaining better diagnostic images.
Choice D rationale
No allergy to penicillins is crucial information for procedures involving antibiotics, especially for patients with a history of allergic reactions. However, it is not pertinent to a bone scan, which uses a radioactive tracer rather than antibiotics.
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