A client with an above the knee amputation asks the nurse why the stump needs to be wrapped with an elastic bandage. The nurse explains that it:

prevents bleeding and covers the incision.

decreases phantom limb pain.

limits the formation of blood clots.

shapes the soft tissue and minimizes edema.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   While wrapping the stump can help secure a dressing and protect the incision, the primary purpose of the elastic bandage is not to prevent bleeding. Instead, it helps to manage swelling and shape the residual limb.
B.   Phantom limb pain is a sensation where individuals feel pain in the area where the limb once was. While some patients report relief from phantom pain with various techniques, wrapping the stump is not specifically designed for this purpose. Other interventions are more effective for managing phantom limb pain.
C.   Elastic bandaging does not specifically limit the formation of blood clots in the context of an amputation stump. While proper limb positioning and movement can help prevent clot formation, the main purpose of the bandage is not related to clot prevention.
D.   The primary purpose of wrapping the stump with an elastic bandage is to shape the soft tissue and control edema (swelling). Proper compression helps reduce swelling, encourages the soft tissue to conform to the desired shape for fitting a prosthesis later, and aids in healing.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. While rapid weight gain is a concern, it's important to consider the underlying cause. If the weight gain is medication-related (as in option B), it's a significant risk factor. However, if it's due to other factors like increased appetite or decreased activity, it might not be as directly linked to diabetes risk.
B. Many antipsychotic medications, including aripiprazole, have been linked to metabolic side effects like weight gain, increased blood glucose levels, and dyslipidemia. These metabolic changes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
C. A sedentary lifestyle is a well-known risk factor for type 2 diabetes. Reduced physical activity can lead to insulin resistance, a condition where the body's cells become less responsive to insulin.
D. A diet rich in vegetables and lean protein is generally healthy and can help prevent chronic diseases. This option does not directly increase the risk of type 2 diabetes.
E. A random blood glucose level above 200 mg/dL is indicative of diabetes. This is a clear marker of impaired glucose metabolism and a significant risk factor for type 2 diabetes.

A. the heparin provides anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective. B. this combination facilitates the dissolving of the clot. C. smaller doses of both drugs can be used with this method of administration. D. this combination provides immediate maximum protection against clot formation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Heparin acts quickly to provide immediate anticoagulation, while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Heparin ensures that the client is adequately anticoagulated during the initial phase while waiting for warfarin to take effect.
B. Neither heparin nor warfarin directly dissolves clots. They are both anticoagulants that prevent further clot formation and allow the body's natural processes (fibrinolysis) to break down the existing clot over time. The combination does not specifically facilitate the dissolution of clots.
C. This statement is misleading. The use of both medications is not primarily about reducing the doses. Instead, each medication has its own dosing based on the patient’s needs, and the combination is used for timing and efficacy rather than dose reduction.
D. While heparin does provide immediate anticoagulation, saying it provides "maximum protection" could be misleading. It does ensure effective anticoagulation in the short term, but the maximum effectis related to individual response and therapeutic levels, which vary. Additionally, once warfarin reaches therapeutic levels, it becomes the primary agent for long-term anticoagulation.

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A client with an above the knee amputation asks the nurse why the stump needs to be wrapped with an elastic bandage. The nurse explains that it:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What factors in the history of a client with schizoaffective disorders puts the client at higher risk for type 2 diabetes? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A client is receiving heparin sodium 5000 units IV and oral warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educated the client that heparin and warfarin are both used because:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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