The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X 1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2mL. How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.
The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
Volume to administer (mL)=( Desired dose (mcg)/Available concentration (mcg/mL) 100 mcg is in 2 mL, so the concentration is:
100 mcg/2 Ml =50 mcg/mL
Volume to administer =25 mcg/ 50 mcg/mL=0.5mL
So, the nurse will administer 0.5 mL of fentanyl for the correct dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This time falls shortly after the onset of NPH insulin. While hypoglycemia could start to occur around this time, it is less likely to be at its peak.
B. This time is past the peak range of NPH insulin. The likelihood of hypoglycemia is lower as the insulin effect would be tapering off.
C. This time is well past the usual duration of NPH insulin. By this point, the risk of hypoglycemia would be significantly decreased.
D. This time falls within the peak action of NPH insulin (approximately 4-12 hours post-administration). This is when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur due to the greatest effect of the insulin.
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