The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X 1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2mL. How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Volume to administer (mL)=( Desired dose (mcg)/Available concentration (mcg/mL) 100 mcg is in 2 mL, so the concentration is:
100 mcg/2 Ml =50 mcg/mL
Volume to administer =25 mcg/ 50 mcg/mL=0.5mL
So, the nurse will administer 0.5 mL of fentanyl for the correct dose.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Teaching the client about maintaining a healthy weight is crucial, as weight management is a key factor in preventing the progression from prediabetes to type 2 diabetes. Losing even a small percentage of body weight can significantly improve insulin sensitivity and reduce the risk of developing diabetes.

B. At a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL, the client is not at the stage where insulin therapy is indicated. Insulin is typically reserved for those with diabetes who require it for glycemic control. The focus should be on lifestyle changes rather than pharmacological treatment at this time.
C. Similar to insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents are generally not prescribed for clients with prediabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels through lifestyle changes, and medication is typically introduced only if the client progresses to diabetes.
D. While self-monitoring of blood glucose is important for individuals with diabetes, it may not be necessary for someone with a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL unless specifically indicated by a healthcare provider. Education could include how to monitor if they develop diabetes in the future, but the immediate focus should be on prevention strategies.

A. would need so much of an oral antihypoglycemic agent that it would cost too much. B. are allergic to oral antihypoglycemic agents. C. would have more episodes of hypoglycemia with oral antihypoglycemic agents. D. have little or none of their own insulin that can be released.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The effectiveness of oral antihypoglycemic agents does not depend on dosage amounts that would make them cost-prohibitive. Instead, these medications work by stimulating insulin production or enhancing insulin sensitivity, which is not relevant for Type 1 diabetes.
B. While some individuals may have allergies to certain medications, this is not the reason oral antihypoglycemic agents are ineffective for those with Type 1 diabetes. The ineffectiveness is not related to allergy but rather to the underlying pathology of the disease.
C. While it is true that the risk of hypoglycemia exists with all glucose-lowering therapies, this is not the primary reason why oral antihypoglycemics are ineffective in Type 1 diabetes. The use of these agents may increase hypoglycemia risk in a broader context, but the fundamental issue is related to insulin deficiency.
D. In Type 1 diabetes, the pancreas produces little to no insulin due to autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells. Oral antihypoglycemic agents typically rely on the presence of some endogenous insulin to be effective.

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The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X 1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2mL. How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client screened for diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL. The nurse will plan to teach the client about:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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