A client who is a vegetarian has a new prescription for warfarin. The client reports eating leafy green vegetables every day. How should the nurse respond?

Advise the client that the healthcare provider needs to be made aware of the current diet.

Suggest that the client replace the leafy vegetables with a protein source such as nuts or beans.

Confirm that the clients diet choices will help the medication be more effective in preventing blood clots.

Commend the patient for a healthy lifestyle and encourage the client to continue current diet habits.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Advise the client that the healthcare provider needs to be made aware of the current diet: This is the most appropriate response. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Leafy green vegetables, such as spinach and kale, are high in vitamin K and can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. It is important for the healthcare provider to be aware of the client’s diet to properly adjust the warfarin dosage and ensure effective anticoagulation while minimizing the risk of bleeding or clotting.
B. Suggest that the client replace the leafy vegetables with a protein source such as nuts or beans: This suggestion is not necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions. While it's true that leafy green vegetables can affect warfarin, replacing them with other foods is not required. It’s more important to manage vitamin K intake consistently.
C. Confirm that the client’s diet choices will help the medication be more effective in preventing blood clots: This statement is incorrect. Leafy green vegetables can counteract the effects of warfarin due to their high vitamin K content.
D. Commend the patient for a healthy lifestyle and encourage the client to continue current diet habits: Although a diet rich in vegetables is generally healthy, it’s crucial to recognize that the high vitamin K content can impact the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Therefore, simply encouraging the client to continue the current diet without considering its interaction with the medication is not appropriate

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored: Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to the obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, not by a narrow angle. The treatment aims to control eye pressure rather than restore the angle, which is more relevant to acute angle-closure glaucoma.
B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. The prescribed eye drops help in managing intraocular pressure over the long term to prevent vision loss.
C. For long-term control of pain and swelling: Open-angle glaucoma typically does not present with pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to control intraocular pressure rather than address pain or swelling, which are not primary symptoms of this condition.
D. Until the excess pressure is reduced: While initial treatment aims to reduce intraocular pressure, open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing use of medications to maintain normal pressure levels and prevent progression of the disease. Discontinuing the medication after initial pressure reduction can lead to a return of elevated intraocular pressure.

A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: This timing is correct for monitoring vancomycin levels. The peak level is typically measured immediately after the completion of the infusion (though peak levels are less commonly required for vancomycin), and the trough level is measured just before the next dose is due, 30 minutes before administration. This approach helps in evaluating the medication's efficacy and safety.
B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication: This timing is not ideal. The peak level for vancomycin is usually measured immediately after the dose rather than one hour later. Trough levels are measured closer to the next dose, typically 30 minutes before the next dose.
C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication: Measuring levels two hours after the dose completion is too late for a peak level. The trough level should be measured closer to the next dose, generally 30 minutes before the next administration.
D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: Measuring the level 30 minutes into the infusion is not appropriate for peak levels, which are typically measured.

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A client who is a vegetarian has a new prescription for warfarin. The client reports eating leafy green vegetables every day. How should the nurse respond?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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