A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?
Until a smaller angle can be restored.
For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
For long-term control of pain and swelling.
Until the excess pressure is reduced.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Until a smaller angle can be restored: Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to the obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, not by a narrow angle. The treatment aims to control eye pressure rather than restore the angle, which is more relevant to acute angle-closure glaucoma.
B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. The prescribed eye drops help in managing intraocular pressure over the long term to prevent vision loss.
C. For long-term control of pain and swelling: Open-angle glaucoma typically does not present with pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to control intraocular pressure rather than address pain or swelling, which are not primary symptoms of this condition.
D. Until the excess pressure is reduced: While initial treatment aims to reduce intraocular pressure, open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing use of medications to maintain normal pressure levels and prevent progression of the disease. Discontinuing the medication after initial pressure reduction can lead to a return of elevated intraocular pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not used for reversing the effects of heparin. They are different classes of anticoagulants with distinct reversal agents.
B. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin.
C. Protamine sulfate: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin overdose. It neutralizes the effects of heparin and is used to quickly reverse its anticoagulant effects in case of an overdose or excessive bleeding.
D. Diphenhydramine HCl: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and has no role in reversing anticoagulants.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer both prescribed medications as scheduled: Given that the client's total calcium level is already elevated (14 mg/dL), administering additional calcium carbonate could exacerbate hypercalcemia. Calcitriol, a form of vitamin D, can also increase calcium levels, so administering it without addressing the high calcium level could worsen the condition.
B. Hold the calcium carbonate, but administer the calcitriol as scheduled: This option is not appropriate because calcitriol can further increase calcium levels, potentially worsening hypercalcemia. Both medications should be reviewed, and their administration should be adjusted according to the client's current calcium status.
C. Hold the calcitriol, but administer the calcium carbonate as scheduled: Holding calcitriol alone would not address the potential for further increasing calcium levels. Calcium carbonate should also be withheld since the client is already hypercalcemic.
D. Hold both medications until contacting the healthcare provider: This is the most appropriate action. The client's elevated calcium level indicates hypercalcemia, which requires careful management. The healthcare provider should be contacted to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action to avoid worsening hypercalcemia.
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