A client, who has undergone a transurethral resection of the bladder tumor (TURBT), complains of bladder spasms and has continuous bladder irrigation running. Which nursing action is most appropriate for this problem?
Instruct the client to "bear down" to relieve the spasms
Warm the irrigation solution to body temperature
Administer the prescribed prn belladonna and opium suppository
Administer the prescribed prn meperidine 75 mg IV
The Correct Answer is C
A. This is not an appropriate action as it can increase pressure on the bladder and worsen the spasms.
B. While warming the irrigation solution can help to prevent discomfort, it is not the most effective way to address the bladder spasms.
C. Belladonna and opium suppositories are commonly used to relieve bladder spasms. They work by relaxing the muscles in the bladder and reducing pain. In a client who has undergone TURBT and is experiencing continuous bladder irrigation, these suppositories can be an effective way to manage discomfort.
D. Meperidine is a narcotic pain reliever that can be used to manage pain after surgery. However, it is not specifically indicated for bladder spasms and may not be the most appropriate medication in this case.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A.While it's important to gather information about the client's symptoms, the priority in this situation is to determine the underlying cause of the neurological symptoms. A CT scan can quickly identify if there's been a stroke or other brain injury.
B.This is the most appropriate and urgent intervention. A CT scan can rapidly identify if the client has had a stroke, which is a time-sensitive medical emergency. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for minimizing brain damage and improving outcomes.
C.t-PA is a medication used to dissolve blood clots in the brain, but it is only effective if given within a specific time window after the onset of stroke symptoms. Without a confirmed diagnosis of stroke from a CT scan, administering t-PA could be harmful.
D.While a speech pathologist may be involved in the client's care later on, the priority is to determine the underlying cause of the neurological symptoms and initiate appropriate treatment. A CT scan is essential for this purpose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. While it may be prescribed for certain patients at risk for stroke, it is not typically the first-line medication for managing TIA or hyperlipidemia. It is more often used in patients with specific types of atrial fibrillation or mechanical heart valves.
B. Simethicone is an anti-foaming agent used to relieve gas and bloating. It does not have any role in managing hyperlipidemia or preventing strokes. Thus, this option is not relevant to the client's condition.
C. Simvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, including stroke. For a client with hyperlipidemia and a history of TIA, simvastatin would be an appropriate medication to help manage cholesterol and decrease the risk of future ischemic events.
D. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used for anticoagulation, often in the context of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. It may not be the first choice for TIA management. While it has its uses in preventing clot formation, it is not the standard treatment for a patient who has had a TIA.
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