A client, who has undergone a transurethral resection of the bladder tumor (TURBT), complains of bladder spasms and has continuous bladder irrigation running. Which nursing action is most appropriate for this problem?
Instruct the client to "bear down" to relieve the spasms
Warm the irrigation solution to body temperature
Administer the prescribed prn belladonna and opium suppository
Administer the prescribed prn meperidine 75 mg IV
The Correct Answer is C
A. This is not an appropriate action as it can increase pressure on the bladder and worsen the spasms.
B. While warming the irrigation solution can help to prevent discomfort, it is not the most effective way to address the bladder spasms.
C. Belladonna and opium suppositories are commonly used to relieve bladder spasms. They work by relaxing the muscles in the bladder and reducing pain. In a client who has undergone TURBT and is experiencing continuous bladder irrigation, these suppositories can be an effective way to manage discomfort.
D. Meperidine is a narcotic pain reliever that can be used to manage pain after surgery. However, it is not specifically indicated for bladder spasms and may not be the most appropriate medication in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While it is true that some cancers of the reproductive tract can be slow-growing and may respond well to treatment, this statement is overly generalized. It does not specifically address the prognosis or treatment success associated with cervical carcinoma in situ.
B. This statement provides a statistic but may not accurately reflect the prognosis for cervical carcinoma in situ, which is typically higher than 75% when detected and treated early. This response could also imply that the survival rate for invasive cervical cancer is the same, which could lead to misunderstanding.
C. Cervical carcinoma in situ is a pre-invasive stage of cervical cancer, and when it is detected early, the treatment is usually very effective, leading to a high cure rate. This statement reassures the husband that the prognosis is good, given that early detection and treatment are key factors.
D. The term "curable" implies a much better prognosis than a mere 50% survival rate, which may refer to various cancers and does not specifically apply to cervical carcinoma in situ. This response does not provide the husband with the clarity he needs about his wife's condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. These are behavioral changes that may occur after a stroke, but they are not directly related to motor loss.
B. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body, but in this case, the client is experiencing motor loss on the right side. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements, which can also occur after a stroke, but it is not a direct manifestation of motor loss.
C. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision in half of the visual field on the same side as the stroke. Diplopia is double vision. While these are both common symptoms of stroke, they are not related to motor loss.
D. A left-sided stroke typically results in motor loss on the right side of the body. This is because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body. Additionally, ataxia, which is a lack of coordination, is a common symptom of stroke.
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