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A client who has active tuberculosis and is taking rifampin reports that his urine and sweat have developed a red-orange tinge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Instruct the client to increase his fluid intake.

Prepare the client for dialysis.

Check the client's liver function test results.

Document this as an expected finding.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Increased fluid intake is not likely to change the color of urine and sweat caused by rifampin.

Choice B rationale:

Dialysis is not indicated for managing the red-orange discoloration caused by rifampin.

Choice C rationale:

Rifampin can affect liver function, but the red-orange discoloration is not primarily related to liver function.

Choice D rationale:

Red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and other body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not require any specific interventions.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The dorsal vein is not typically used for peripheral IV catheter placement due to its location and potential for complications.

Choice B rationale:

The nondominant forearm basilic vein is a common site for peripheral IV catheter placement due to its accessibility and stability.

Choice C rationale:

The distal dorsal vein is not a common site for peripheral IV catheter placement.

Choice D rationale:

The antecubital basilic vein can be used, but the nondominant forearm basilic vein is often preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to its accessibility and stability.

A. Morphine tablet B. Fentanyl transmucosa C. Lidocaine patch D. Naloxone IV

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Morphine tablet is not likely to provide rapid relief within 1 hour for moderate to severe pain.

Choice B rationale:

Fentanyl transmucosa, such as a fentanyl lozenge or transmucosal patch, is a strong opioid analgesic that can provide rapid relief for breakthrough pain.

Choice C rationale:

A lidocaine patch is typically used for localized pain relief and might not provide the desired level of relief for systemic pain.

Choice D rationale:

Naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It would not be appropriate to administer naloxone in this situation.

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A client who has active tuberculosis and is taking rifampin reports that his urine and sweat have developed a red-orange tinge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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