A client who has a diagnosis of complete placenta previa is admitted to the labor and
delivery suite at 36 weeks gestation with contractions 5 minutes in frequency and 1 minute in duration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Rupture the amniotic sac.
Medicate the client for pain.
Prepare the client for a cesarean section.
Perform a vaginal exam.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Rupturing the amniotic sac in the case of complete placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding and is contraindicated.
B. Pain medication may be administered if needed, but the priority is to address the placenta previa and potential complications.
C. Complete placenta previa at 36 weeks gestation with contractions and bleeding is a clear
indication for an emergency cesarean section to prevent maternal hemorrhage and fetal distress.
D. Performing a vaginal exam can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in cases of placenta previa.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While understanding HIPAA regulations is important, addressing the immediate inappropriate behavior takes precedence.
B. While directing the conversation to a private area is appropriate, stopping the discussion immediately is the priority.
C. The priority is to stop the discussion immediately to prevent further breach of confidentiality.
D. While informing about potential liability for breaching confidentiality is important, addressing the immediate behavior is the priority.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.
B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.
C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.
D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.
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