A client who has a diagnosis of complete placenta previa is admitted to the labor and
delivery suite at 36 weeks gestation with contractions 5 minutes in frequency and 1 minute in duration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Rupture the amniotic sac.
Medicate the client for pain.
Prepare the client for a cesarean section.
Perform a vaginal exam.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Rupturing the amniotic sac in the case of complete placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding and is contraindicated.
B. Pain medication may be administered if needed, but the priority is to address the placenta previa and potential complications.
C. Complete placenta previa at 36 weeks gestation with contractions and bleeding is a clear
indication for an emergency cesarean section to prevent maternal hemorrhage and fetal distress.
D. Performing a vaginal exam can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in cases of placenta previa.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This response may come across as confrontational and could potentially shut down further communication. It's important to offer support and empathy rather than immediately probing with questions.
B. While saying, "You can trust me and tell me what you are thinking," may foster trust, it is too vague and does not focus on assessing the client’s level of suicidal ideation or intent. Effective responses should prioritize safety by exploring specific details about the client’s thoughts.
C. "I need to know what you mean by misery" focuses on understanding the client’s emotional state but does not address the immediate concern of suicidal thoughts. While exploring the client’s feelings is important, it is secondary to assessing imminent risk.
D. Asking, "Do you have a plan to end your life?" is appropriate because it directly assesses the client’s risk for suicide. Determining whether the client has a specific plan, the means to carry it out, and intent to act is essential for evaluating the severity of the situation and implementing safety measures.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
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