A client screened for diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL. The nurse will plan to teach the client about:

maintenance of a healthy weight.

use of low doses of insulin regular.

oral hypoglycemic agents.

self-monitoring of blood glucose.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Teaching the client about maintaining a healthy weight is crucial, as weight management is a key factor in preventing the progression from prediabetes to type 2 diabetes. Losing even a small percentage of body weight can significantly improve insulin sensitivity and reduce the risk of developing diabetes.

B.   At a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL, the client is not at the stage where insulin therapy is indicated. Insulin is typically reserved for those with diabetes who require it for glycemic control. The focus should be on lifestyle changes rather than pharmacological treatment at this time.
C.   Similar to insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents are generally not prescribed for clients with prediabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels through lifestyle changes, and medication is typically introduced only if the client progresses to diabetes.
D.   While self-monitoring of blood glucose is important for individuals with diabetes, it may not be necessary for someone with a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL unless specifically indicated by a healthcare provider. Education could include how to monitor if they develop diabetes in the future, but the immediate focus should be on prevention strategies.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.

A. Pain while urinating B. Oliguria with hypoalbuminemia C. Incontinence D. Severe flank pain radiating to the testicle

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B. This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C. This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D. This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.

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A client screened for diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL. The nurse will plan to teach the client about:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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