A client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia is brought to the mental health clinic by the identical twin sibling for the first follow-up visit after hospitalization. The client’s sibling says to the nurse, "I read that schizophrenia runs in families. I guess I'm doomed." Which is the best response by the nurse?
"At the moment, I would worry more about how your sibling is doing."
"You are at risk for the disease. However, there are other factors that contribute to the development of schizophrenia."
"Would you like to talk to a health care provider about this?"
"The odds are about 50-50 that you will come down with the disease as well."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Redirecting the sibling’s concern to the patient minimizes and dismisses the sibling’s anxiety. This is not therapeutic.
Choice B reason: Schizophrenia has a genetic component, especially in identical twins, but environment and other factors also play roles. This response provides accurate information while reducing unnecessary fear.
Choice C reason: Offering referral may be helpful later, but it does not immediately address the sibling’s expressed concern or provide reassurance.
Choice D reason: Saying there is a 50-50 chance is inaccurate and unnecessarily alarming. The risk is higher in identical twins but not absolute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Haloperidol may be used for severe agitation or hallucinations but is not the first-line treatment for delirium tremens because it does not address the underlying withdrawal process.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the drug of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal and delirium tremens. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, and manages autonomic instability.
Choice C reason: Naltrexone is used to reduce alcohol cravings and prevent relapse but is not appropriate for acute withdrawal or delirium tremens.
Choice D reason: Disulfiram is an aversive therapy medication used to discourage alcohol consumption by causing unpleasant effects if alcohol is ingested. It is contraindicated during withdrawal due to safety risks.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, simply stating this without providing management strategies does not support the client’s health.
Choice B reason: Stopping the medication abruptly without medical guidance risks relapse of psychotic symptoms and is unsafe.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics have their own significant risks, including extrapyramidal side effects, and are not automatically safer. Medication changes should only be considered if lifestyle modifications fail and under provider supervision.
Choice D reason: Encouraging healthy lifestyle changes like diet modification and exercise helps manage weight gain while maintaining medication adherence, making this the most appropriate intervention.
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