A client receives a prescription for loratadine suspension 10 mg PO once a day. The bottle is labeled, "Loratadine for Oral Suspension, 5 mg per 5 mL." How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take? (Enter numerical value only.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["2"]

The prescription requires a 10 mg dose of loratadine.

The bottle indicates the concentration is 5 mg per 5 mL.

One teaspoon is equivalent to approximately 5 mL.

Therefore, to achieve a 10 mg dose, the client would need 10 mg / 5 mg per teaspoon = 2 teaspoons.

The nurse should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the loratadine suspension daily.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Giving a bolus of 1,000 mL 0.9% sodium chloride is typically used to treat hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances, which are not indicated by the patient's current lab values or clinical
situation.
B. Repeating the blood gas in 1 hour is a reasonable order as it would provide information on whether the patient's respiratory status is improving following interventions for ventilator-associated pneumonia.
C. Placing the client in a prone position can improve oxygenation in patients with respiratory distress by redistributing lung perfusion, making it a suitable intervention for this patient with diminished breath sounds and crackles.
D. Performing endotracheal suctioning would help clear secretions, which may be contributing to the patient's diminished breath sounds and crackles, and is consistent with the care for a patient with pneumonia.
E. A chest x-ray now would typically be ordered if there was a suspicion of a new onset condition such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion, which is not indicated by the patient's current presentation.
F. Administering an inhaled corticosteroid is generally used for long-term management of chronic respiratory conditions and is not typically used for acute management of ventilator-associated pneumonia.

A. Delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness and institutionalization is often necessary. B. The client is exhibiting symptoms of dementia and because of age, it may be permanent. C. The client's delirium may be due to depression and is possibly reversible. D. If the dementia is a result of Alzheimer's disease, it is often reversible even in the late stages.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This statement is not accurate and may alarm the family unnecessarily. Delirium is often reversible and can have various causes, including medical conditions, medications, and environmental factors. Institutionalization is not always necessary.
B. This statement jumps to conclusions and may cause unnecessary distress to the family. While dementia is a possibility, it is not appropriate to make a diagnosis without further assessment and evaluation by a healthcare provider.
C. This response acknowledges the family's concerns and suggests a possible cause for the client's symptoms. Depression can manifest as cognitive symptoms such as difficulty
concentrating and remembering, and it is often reversible with appropriate treatment and support.
D. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder and is not typically reversible. This statement may give false hope to the family and does not address the client's current symptoms effectively.

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A client receives a prescription for loratadine suspension 10 mg PO once a day. The bottle is labeled, "Loratadine for Oral Suspension, 5 mg per 5 mL." How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take? (Enter numerical value only.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits Based on the assessment and blood gas results, which 3 orders should the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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