A client received midazolam 2 mg and morphine sulfate 4 mg for a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse positions the client on the right side and monitors the vital signs. Which is the physiological reason for the nurse's intervention?
Provide pressure over the biopsy site.
Keep the client from aspirating.
Lessen the amount of post procedure pain
Facilitate pulmonary expansion
The Correct Answer is A
A. Provide pressure over the biopsy site:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is aimed at providing pressure over the biopsy site. This pressure helps in promoting hemostasis by compressing the blood vessels at the biopsy site, thus reducing the risk of bleeding or hematoma formation. The liver is located on the right side of the body, so positioning the client on the right side applies pressure directly over the liver, aiding in the prevention of bleeding complications.
B. Keep the client from aspirating:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is not primarily aimed at preventing aspiration. Aspiration precautions are typically implemented during procedures where there is a risk of regurgitation or vomiting, such as during anesthesia induction or recovery, rather than specifically after a liver biopsy.
C. Lessen the amount of post-procedure pain:
While positioning can play a role in managing post-procedure pain, the primary reason for positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is to provide pressure over the biopsy site to promote hemostasis. Pain management strategies such as administering analgesics may be utilized to address any discomfort experienced by the client post-procedure.
D. Facilitate pulmonary expansion:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy does not directly facilitate pulmonary expansion. Facilitating pulmonary expansion is typically achieved through interventions such as deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry, and early ambulation rather than positioning alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators derived from arachidonic acid metabolism, primarily produced by leukocytes (white blood cells) such as mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils. In the context of asthma, leukotrienes play a significant role in the pathophysiology of the disease by contributing to airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction. Here's a breakdown of their immune response:
A) Produce the sensation of itching:
Leukotrienes are not directly involved in producing the sensation of itching. Itching is often associated with histamine release rather than leukotrienes.
B) Tighten airway and produce mucous:
Correct. Leukotrienes are potent bronchoconstrictors that cause smooth muscle contraction in the airways, leading to narrowing (constriction) of the bronchioles. Additionally, they stimulate the secretion of mucus from goblet cells in the airway epithelium, contributing to airway obstruction and mucus production, which are characteristic features of asthma exacerbations.
C) Causes formation of bradykinin:
Bradykinin is a peptide mediator that is generated from the plasma protein kininogen and is involved in vasodilation, pain sensation, and inflammation. Leukotrienes are not directly responsible for the formation of bradykinin.
D) Serves as a receptor for antigen:
Leukotrienes do not serve as receptors for antigens. Instead, they are lipid mediators released in response to various stimuli, including allergens, infections, and irritants, and they act on specific receptors (e.g., leukotriene receptors) to exert their effects, such as bronchoconstriction and inflammation
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Severely decreased GFR:
In stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is indeed severely decreased. Stage 4 CKD is characterized by a GFR between 15 and 29 mL/min/1.73 m² according to the Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) guidelines. At this stage, there is significant kidney damage, resulting in a substantial reduction in kidney function and GFR. Clients with stage 4 CKD require close monitoring and management to prevent further progression of kidney disease and associated complications.
B. Mildly decreased GFR:
This choice is incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a mildly decreased GFR. A mildly decreased GFR would typically be indicative of earlier stages of CKD. In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
C. Kidney damage with increased GFR:
This interpretation is inaccurate. In stage 4 CKD, kidney damage leads to a progressive decline in GFR, rather than an increase. An increased GFR is not typical of advanced CKD stages; instead, it may occur in conditions such as hyperfiltration in early stages of diabetic nephropathy.
D. Moderately decreased GFR:
This option is also incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a moderately decreased GFR. A moderately decreased GFR would typically be indicative of stage 3 CKD, where the GFR ranges from 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is more severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
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