A client presents with a possible bowel obstruction, and the nurse completes a detailed abdominal assessment. Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a large bowel obstruction? (Select all that apply).

Profuse vomiting with fecal odor

Epigastric abdominal distention

Intermittent abdominal cramping

Ribbon-like stools or diarrhea

Metabolic acidosis

Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,E,F

Choice A reason:Profuse vomiting with a fecal odor can occur in large bowel obstructions due to the backward flow of bowel contents.

Choice B reason:Epigastric abdominal distention is a common finding in bowel obstructions due to the accumulation of gas and fluids.

Choice C reason:Intermittent abdominal cramping results from the bowel's attempt to push contents through the obstructed area.

Choice D reason:Ribbon-like stools or diarrhea may occur if there is a partial obstruction allowing some contents to pass.

Choice E reason:Metabolic acidosis can develop due to the accumulation of lactic acid from tissue hypoxia and decreased perfusion.

Choice F reason:Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance can result from vomiting and the inability to absorb fluids and nutrients properly.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering oxygen therapy is the first and immediate intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism to address hypoxemia.

Choice B reason: Starting an IV infusion of Lactated Ringer's is important for fluid resuscitation but is not the first intervention for pulmonary embolism.

Choice C reason: Initiating cardiac monitoring is important for observing the client's heart function but comes after ensuring the client is receiving adequate oxygen.

Choice D reason: Giving morphine IV may be used for pain management in pulmonary embolism but is not the first-line intervention.

A. Atrial fibrillation B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Asystole D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:Atrial fibrillation is not typically treated with defibrillation; it is usually managed with medication or other forms of rhythm control.

Choice B reason:Supraventricular tachycardia does not usually require defibrillation; it may be treated with vagal maneuvers or medication.

Choice C reason:Asystole, or the absence of a heartbeat, is not treated with defibrillation as there is no electrical activity to reset.

Choice D reason:Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening heart rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a normal heart rhythm.

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A client presents with a possible bowel obstruction, and the nurse completes a detailed abdominal assessment. Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a large bowel obstruction? (Select all that apply).

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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