A client presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. While obtaining the history and physical assessment, the nurse discovers that the client's significant other is recovering from COVID 19. After obtaining a nasal swab to test the client for COVID 19, which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Start an IV infusion for antiviral drug to be administered for positive COVID 19 test results.
Institute droplet precautions, place client in a private room, and keep the door closed.
Counsel family members to monitor for illness symptoms for 2 weeks after last contact with patient.
Explain to the client to inform others that they may have been potentially exposed in the last 14 days.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale
A. Starting IV infusion for antiviral drugs is premature without confirmation of COVID-19 diagnosis. Antiviral treatment for COVID-19 is typically initiated based on positive test results and clinical assessment by the healthcare provider. It is important to wait for test results before starting specific treatment protocols.
B. Given the client's symptoms and exposure history to someone with COVID-19, it is crucial to implement droplet precautions. This includes placing the client in a private room with the door closed to minimize the risk of airborne transmission. Healthcare providers should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), including masks (N95 respirator or surgical mask), gown, gloves, and eye protection, when entering the room.
C. This action is appropriate to inform family members about potential exposure to COVID-19. Symptoms can develop up to 14 days after exposure, so monitoring for symptoms is essential. However, immediate isolation and precautions for the client are more critical at this stage.
D. While it is important for the client to inform others about potential exposure, the immediate concern is implementing isolation precautions for the client and preventing further transmission within the healthcare setting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale
A. Herpes simplex virus type II (HSV-II) primarily spreads through direct contact with the lesions and is not airborne. Airborne precautions and negative airflow rooms are not necessary for this condition.
B. Scarlet fever is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and typically spreads through respiratory droplets. However, scarlet fever itself does not require airborne precautions. If complicated with pneumonia, respiratory droplets could potentially spread the infection, but specific airborne precautions are generally not required unless there are other pathogens involved that require it.
C. Scabies is caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite and spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact. It does not require airborne precautions or negative airflow rooms.
D. Apositive Mantoux test and sputum cultures positive for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) suggest tuberculosis (TB) infection. TB is spread through airborne droplets (e.g., coughing, sneezing), and therefore, requires airborne precautions including negative airflow rooms to prevent transmission to others.A
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Rationale
A. High in sodium due to pickling, which is not suitable for someone with hypertension.
B. Recommended because fresh fruits are low in sodium and high in potassium and other nutrients beneficial for managing blood pressure.
C. Recommended because they are low in sodium and rich in potassium, fiber, and nutrients that support cardiovascular health.
D. Cottage cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided or consumed in moderation.
E. Generally high in sodium, which should be limited or avoided in the diet of someone with hypertension.
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