A client needs 5 liters of oxygen. Which of the following devices is appropriate for use with an oxygen flow rate of 5 liters? Select all that apply:
High-flow nasal cannula
Simple face mask
Nasal cannula
Non-rebreather mask
Venturi mask
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A Reason: High-flow nasal cannula
The high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) is designed to deliver oxygen at flow rates much higher than 5 liters per minute, typically ranging from 20 to 60 liters per minute. It is used for patients requiring high levels of oxygen and positive airway pressure. Therefore, it is not appropriate for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.
Choice B Reason: Simple face mask
The simple face mask is suitable for delivering oxygen at flow rates between 6 to 10 liters per minute. However, it can also be used at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, providing an FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) of approximately 40-60%. This makes it an appropriate choice for the given requirement.
Choice C Reason: Nasal cannula
The nasal cannula is a low-flow oxygen delivery device that can deliver oxygen at flow rates from 1 to 6 liters per minute. At 5 liters per minute, it provides an FiO2 of approximately 40%. It is comfortable for patients and is commonly used for those who need a moderate amount of supplemental oxygen.
Choice D Reason: Non-rebreather mask
The non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high concentrations of oxygen, typically at flow rates of 10 to 15 liters per minute. It is used in situations where patients need a high FiO2, close to 100%. Therefore, it is not suitable for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.
Choice E Reason: Venturi mask
The Venturi mask is used to deliver precise oxygen concentrations, typically ranging from 24% to 60% FiO2. It is suitable for patients who require controlled oxygen therapy. While it can be adjusted to deliver oxygen at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, it is generally used for more specific FiO2 requirements.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Monitoring the QT interval is crucial when administering amiodarone because this drug can prolong the QT interval, increasing the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially life-threatening form of ventricular tachycardia. The QT interval represents the time it takes for the heart’s ventricles to depolarize and repolarize, and prolongation can lead to arrhythmias. Regular monitoring helps in early detection and prevention of such adverse effects.
Choice B Reason:
Heart rate monitoring is essential when administering amiodarone because the drug can cause bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate). Amiodarone affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, which can lead to significant changes in heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate ensures that any bradycardia is detected early and managed appropriately to prevent complications such as hypotension or heart failure.
Choice C Reason:
While respiratory rate monitoring is important in general patient care, it is not specifically necessary for monitoring the effects of amiodarone. Amiodarone primarily affects the heart’s electrical activity and has less direct impact on respiratory function. However, in cases of severe adverse reactions, such as pulmonary toxicity, respiratory monitoring may become relevant.
Choice D Reason:
Monitoring heart rhythm is vital when administering amiodarone because the drug is used to treat arrhythmias and can also cause new arrhythmias or exacerbate existing ones. Continuous ECG monitoring helps in detecting any abnormal heart rhythms early, allowing for timely intervention. This is particularly important in patients with a history of arrhythmias or those receiving high doses of amiodarone.
Choice E Reason:
Urine output monitoring is not specifically necessary for patients receiving amiodarone. While maintaining adequate urine output is important for overall patient health, amiodarone does not typically affect renal function directly. Therefore, urine output monitoring is not a primary concern when administering this medication.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: A buffalo hump is a characteristic sign of Cushing’s syndrome. It refers to the accumulation of fat on the back of the neck and shoulders. This symptom occurs due to the excessive production of cortisol, which leads to abnormal fat distribution in the body.
Choice B reason: Moon face is another hallmark of Cushing’s syndrome. It describes the rounding and fullness of the face, which results from fat deposits. This symptom is also caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol.
Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly associated with Cushing’s syndrome. Cortisol increases blood pressure by enhancing the sensitivity of blood vessels to catecholamines and by promoting sodium and water retention.
Choice D reason: Purple striations, or stretch marks, are often seen in individuals with Cushing’s syndrome. These marks typically appear on the abdomen, thighs, breasts, and arms. They result from the thinning of the skin and the breakdown of collagen due to elevated cortisol levels.
Choice E reason: Tremors are not typically associated with Cushing’s syndrome. While Cushing’s syndrome can cause a variety of symptoms, tremors are more commonly linked to other conditions such as hyperthyroidism or neurological disorders.
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