A client is to receive enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously. Available is enoxaparin 40 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["0.8"]
- To find out how many mL to administer for a medication dose, we need to use this formula: mL = (dose in mg) / (concentration in mg/mL)
- In this formula, the dose in mg is the amount of medication ordered by the provider, and concentration in mg/mL is the strength of medication available in the vial or syringe.
- We plug in the given values into this formula: mL = (30 mg) / (40 mg/mL)
- We simplify and solve this equation: mL = 0.75 mL
- We round off to the nearest tenth: mL = **0.8 mL**
- We add a leading zero if needed: mL = **0.8 mL**
- We do not add a trailing zero: mL = **0.8 mL**
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Protrusion of the posterior bladder wall downward through the anterior vaginal wall is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called cystocele. A cystocele occurs when the bladder pushes into the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice B: Bulging of the small intestine through the posterior vaginal wall is the correct answer because it describes an enterocele. Enterocele occurs when the small intestine slides into a pouch between the rectum and vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice C: Descent of the uterus through the pelvic floor into the vagina is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus drops down into or out of the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice D: Sagging of the rectum with the pressure exerted against the posterior vaginal wall is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called rectocele. Rectocele occurs when the rectum bulges into or out of the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Antiestrogens are not a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can cause severe side effects such as bone loss, hot flashes, and vaginal dryness.
Choice B reason: Progestins are a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can suppress the growth of endometrial tissue and reduce pain and bleeding.
Choice C reason: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues are a second-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can induce temporary menopause and cause bone loss, hot flashes, and mood changes.
Choice D reason: NSAIDs are not a treatment for endometriosis, as they can only provide symptomatic relief for pain and inflammation.
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