A client is sharing their experiences with a nurse. The client states, "I just can't seem to enjoy anything anymore. Even activities I used to love don't bring me pleasure." This statement by the client is indicative of:
A manic episode.
Bipolar disorder.
Anhedonia, a characteristic of MDD.
Adjustment disorder.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
A manic episode is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, often accompanied by increased energy, decreased need for sleep, and impulsive behavior. The client's description does not align with a manic episode.
Choice B rationale:
Bipolar disorder involves cycling between periods of mania or hypomania and depression. The client's statement does not provide evidence of mood cycling, which is characteristic of bipolar disorder.
Choice C rationale:
The client's statement directly describes anhedonia, which is a key characteristic of major depressive disorder (MDD). Anhedonia involves the inability to derive pleasure from activities that were previously enjoyable, and it is a central diagnostic criterion for MDD.
Choice D rationale:
Adjustment disorder is a condition characterized by emotional or behavioral symptoms that develop in response to a specific stressor. The client's statement is more indicative of a pervasive and ongoing lack of enjoyment, which aligns with the concept of anhedonia in MDD rather than the time-limited nature of adjustment disorder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Genetic theory suggests that a person's genetic makeup can predispose them to develop depression, but it does not specifically address the role of neurotransmitters in depression. While genetics can contribute to the risk of major depressive disorder (MDD), this choice doesn't focus on the neurotransmitter imbalances.
Choice B rationale:
Neuroendocrine theory pertains to the role of hormones in depression, particularly abnormalities in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. While hormones play a role in mood regulation, this theory does not primarily revolve around neurotransmitter imbalances.
Choice C rationale:
Neurotransmitter theory proposes that an imbalance of neurotransmitters, such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, contributes to the development of major depressive disorder. This theory aligns with the idea that these neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, motivation, reward, cognition, and stress response.
Choice D rationale:
Environmental theory suggests that external factors, such as life events and stressors, contribute to the development of depression. While environment can indeed influence depression, it does not specifically address the neurotransmitter imbalances that are central to this question.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choicea. MDD is more prevalent in older adults.
Choice A rationale:
Major depressive disorder (MDD) is indeed more prevalent in older adults.This demographic often faces unique stressors such as chronic illness, loss of loved ones, and social isolation, which can contribute to higher rates of depression.
Choice B rationale:
MDD is not primarily caused by a single factor.It is a complex disorder with multiple contributing factors, including genetics, brain chemistry, environmental influences, and psychological factors.
Choice C rationale:
Anhedonia refers to the loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable, not excessive sleeping.Excessive sleeping is known as hypersomnia.
Choice D rationale:
MDD cannot be diagnosed if only one symptom is present.The diagnosis requires the presence of multiple symptoms, including depressed mood or anhedonia, for at least two weeks.
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