A client is admitted with a small bowel (small intestine) obstruction. Which assessment findings are consistent with this diagnosis?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

Profuse vomiting.

Abdominal pain and distention.

Pain relieved by eating.

Blood in the stool.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,E

Small bowel obstruction can lead to the accumulation of gastric contents above the obstruction, causing vomiting.

Obstruction of the small bowel can result in crampy, colicky abdominal pain and abdominal distention.

Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia (low potassium), can occur due to vomiting and inadequate intake in cases of small bowel obstruction.

The following finding is not directly associated with small bowel obstruction:

Pain relief after eating is more commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease, not small bowel obstruction.

While blood in the stool can be seen in some cases of bowel obstruction, it is more commonly associated with lower gastrointestinal bleeding or other conditions affecting the colon, rather than small bowel obstruction.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can cause a range of side effects, including fluid retention, electrolyte imbalance, and increased blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which may be related to the use of prednisone. It is essential to report this finding to the health care provider as it may require further evaluation and management, such as adjusting the medication dosage or initiating additional treatments to control blood pressure. The other information provided, such as stopping the medication, ankle edema, and not taking prescribed vitamin D, is relevant but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health compared to uncontrolled hypertension.

A. A 50-yr-old patient who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain B. A 23-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL C. A 40-yr-old patient who is pregnant and whose oral glucose tolerance test is 202 mg/dL D. A 19-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12%

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. Hypoglycemia can lead to confusion, altered mental status, seizures, and loss of consciousness if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is crucial to assess and intervene quickly to raise the patient's blood glucose level to a safe range.

While the other clients mentioned also require attention and appropriate care, the severity and immediate risk associated with severe hypoglycemia make it the priority situation. The nurse should initiate appropriate treatment for hypoglycemia, such as administering glucose or glucagon, and closely monitor the patient's response.

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A client is admitted with a small bowel (small intestine) obstruction. Which assessment findings are consistent with this diagnosis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

Nursing Test Bank

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A client is admitted with a small bowel (small intestine) obstruction. Which assessment findings are consistent with this diagnosis?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY