A client is admitted for a drug overdose with a barbiturate. Which is the priority nursing action when planning care for this client?
Check the client's belongings for additional drugs.
Pad the side rails of the bed because seizures are likely.
Prepare a dose of ipecac, an emetic.
Monitor respiratory function.
The Correct Answer is D
D. Barbiturates can cause respiratory depression, hypoventilation, and potentially respiratory arrest, which can lead to hypoxia and cardiac arrest if not promptly recognized and managed.
A. While it's important to assess for any additional drugs or substances that the client may have ingested, this action is not the priority when managing a client with a barbiturate overdose.
B. Seizures can occur as a result of barbiturate overdose, but respiratory depression is the more immediate and life-threatening concern.
C. Ipecac is no longer recommended for the induction of vomiting in cases of drug overdose due to the risk of complications such as aspiration pneumonia and delayed treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Children and adolescents with depression, especially when initiating or adjusting antidepressant medications like SSRIs, are at an increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the safety of the client by implementing suicide precautions, which may include close observation, removing potential means of self-harm, and involving the client in structured activities under supervision.
A. Monitoring food intake and eliminating potential sources of tyramine are considerations for clients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), another class of antidepressant medications, due to the risk of hypertensive crisis.
B. Weight loss and difficulty sleeping are potential side effects of SSRIs that may occur, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. However, suicide precautions are a priority
C. While SSRIs may cause headaches or migraines as potential side effects, monitoring for migraines specifically would not typically be a priority
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. This statement indicates symptoms of anxiety, which alprazolam is commonly prescribed to alleviate. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication with anxiolytic properties, meaning it helps reduce feelings of anxiety and promote relaxation.
A. This statement suggests the presence of delusional thinking, which is a common symptom of schizophrenia. Alprazolam is not typically indicated for the treatment of delusions associated with schizophrenia.
B. While fatigue may be distressing for the client, it is not an indication for the use of alprazolam. Alprazolam is specifically prescribed for the management of anxiety symptoms.
C. This statement suggests the presence of hallucinations, which are another common symptom of schizophrenia. Alprazolam is not indicated for the treatment of hallucinations associated with schizophrenia.
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