A client has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of these assessment findings indicate possible infection? (Select all that apply.)
Temperature: 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit
Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
Respirations: 22 breaths per minute
Purulent drainage
Client ambulates 20 feet
Correct Answer : A,D
Choice A reason: A temperature of 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit is a sign of fever, which is a common symptom of infection. Clients with AIDS have a weakened immune system and are more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Fever indicates that the body is trying to fight off an infection.
Choice B reason: An oxygen saturation of 97% on room air is within the normal range and does not indicate infection. Oxygen saturation measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen in the blood. A low oxygen saturation may indicate respiratory problems, such as pneumonia, which is a common infection in clients with AIDS.
Choice C reason: A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute is slightly above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute, but it does not necessarily indicate infection. Respiratory rate may vary depending on factors such as activity level, stress, pain, or anxiety. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, which could be caused by infection or other conditions.
Choice D reason: Purulent drainage is a thick, yellowgreen, or brown pus that indicates infection. It may come from a wound, an abscess, or a body cavity. Purulent drainage is a sign of inflammation and infection and should be reported to the health care provider.
Choice E reason: A client's ability to ambulate 20 feet is not related to infection. Ambulation is a measure of mobility and function and may be affected by factors such as pain, fatigue, or muscle weakness. Ambulation does not reflect the presence or absence of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Send the client back to surgery is not the nurse's next action, because it is premature and inappropriate. Sending the client back to surgery requires a medical order and a clear indication of the need for surgical intervention. The nurse cannot make this decision without first assessing the wound and contacting the provider.
Choice B reason: Call the provider immediately is not the nurse's next action, because it is not the most urgent and relevant. Calling the provider immediately is an important action, but it should be done after assessing the wound and gathering the necessary data. The nurse should be able to report the findings of the wound assessment, such as the size, shape, color, amount, and type of drainage, as well as the vital signs, pain level, and mental status of the client.
Choice C reason: Assess the wound for signs of dehiscence is the nurse's next action, because it is the most urgent and relevant. Assessing the wound for signs of dehiscence is a priority action, because it can identify the cause and severity of the problem. Dehiscence is a complication that occurs when the surgical incision splits open or separates, which can cause increased drainage, pain, and infection. Dehiscence can be caused by factors such as infection, poor wound healing, excessive strain, or trauma. Dehiscence can be detected by inspecting the wound for gaps, edges, or protrusions.
Choice D reason: Prepare to culture the wound is not the nurse's next action, because it is not the most urgent and relevant. Preparing to culture the wound is a possible action, but it should be done after assessing the wound and contacting the provider. Culturing the wound is a procedure that involves collecting a sample of the wound drainage and sending it to the laboratory for analysis, which can help identify the type and source of infection. Culturing the wound requires a medical order and a sterile technique.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: "I will need to limit the number of fruit servings each day." is not a statement that indicates a correct understanding of the teaching, because it is irrelevant and inaccurate. Limiting the number of fruit servings each day is not a part of the lowpurine diet, as fruits are low in purine and do not affect the uric acid levels. Fruits are also beneficial for the health, as they provide vitamins, antioxidants, and fiber.
Choice B reason: "I should avoid eating liver and other organ meats." is a statement that indicates a correct understanding of the teaching, because it is relevant and accurate. Avoiding eating liver and other organ meats is a part of the lowpurine diet, as organ meats are high in purine and can increase the uric acid levels. Uric acid is a waste product that is formed when purine is broken down in the body. High uric acid levels can cause gout, which is a type of arthritis that occurs when uric acid crystals accumulate in the joints, causing pain, inflammation, and swelling.
Choice C reason: "I can drink only white wine." is not a statement that indicates a correct understanding of the teaching, because it is incorrect and misleading. Drinking only white wine is not a part of the lowpurine diet, as white wine is not low in purine and can increase the uric acid levels. Alcohol, in general, can interfere with the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys, and can also trigger or worsen the gout attacks. Therefore, people with gout should limit or avoid alcohol consumption, regardless of the type or color of the wine.
Choice D reason: "I should choose red meat instead of poultry." is not a statement that indicates a correct understanding of the teaching, because it is incorrect and misleading. Choosing red meat instead of poultry is not a part of the lowpurine diet, as red meat is not low in purine and can increase the uric acid levels. Red meat, such as beef, pork, or lamb, is high in purine and can aggravate the gout symptoms. Therefore, people with gout should limit or avoid red meat consumption, and choose poultry, fish, or plantbased proteins instead.
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