A client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis. The nurse understands that which of the following interventions is a priority in managing this crisis?
Administering antibiotics
Providing blood transfusions
Initiating oxygen therapy
Encouraging fluid intake
The Correct Answer is C
A) This choice is incorrect because while antibiotics may be necessary if there is an infection, they are not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
B) This choice is incorrect because blood transfusions may be needed if there is severe anemia or complications, but they are not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
C) This choice is correct. Initiating oxygen therapy is a priority in managing a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia. Providing supplemental oxygen can help improve tissue oxygenation and reduce the severity of the crisis.
D) This choice is incorrect because although encouraging fluid intake is important in managing sickle cell anemia, it is not the priority intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by an increased destruction of red blood cells, which would typically result in a high reticulocyte count.
B) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by a low level of iron, which leads to decreased hemoglobin production but does not necessarily affect reticulocyte count.
C) This choice is correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, leading to a low reticulocyte count.
D) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which affects red blood cell maturation but does not directly influence reticulocyte count.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is not typically associated with hemolysis or elevated bilirubin levels.
B) This choice is correct. Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of bilirubin, which causes jaundice and elevated bilirubin levels.
C) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 and does not directly involve hemolysis.
D) This choice is incorrect because aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of all blood cells, not hemolysis.
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