A nurse is caring for a client with anemia, and the laboratory results show an increased number of target cells on the peripheral blood smear. Which type of anemia is most likely to be associated with this finding?
Iron-deficiency anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Aplastic anemia
The Correct Answer is A
A) This choice is correct. Iron-deficiency anemia may present with an increased number of target cells on the peripheral blood smear, which are red blood cells with a central area of pallor and a surrounding ring of hemoglobin. This appearance is due to a reduced hemoglobin content in relation to cell size.
B) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells and typically presents with different morphological changes on the peripheral blood smear.
C) This choice is incorrect because sickle cell anemia is associated with the presence of sickle-shaped cells, not target cells.
D) This choice is incorrect because aplastic anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of all formed elements of the blood (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), and it does not typically cause target cells.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is not directly related to chronic inflammatory diseases; it is more commonly associated with blood loss or inadequate iron intake.
B) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is not specifically linked to chronic inflammatory diseases.
C) This choice is incorrect because aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow suppression and is not primarily associated with chronic inflammatory conditions.
D) This choice is correct. Anemia of chronic disease (ACD), also known as anemia of inflammation, is a type of anemia that occurs in the setting of chronic inflammatory diseases. It is typically caused by the body's response to the inflammation, leading to impaired red blood cell production and a shortened red blood cell lifespan.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by an increased destruction of red blood cells, which would typically result in a high reticulocyte count.
B) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by a low level of iron, which leads to decreased hemoglobin production but does not necessarily affect reticulocyte count.
C) This choice is correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, leading to a low reticulocyte count.
D) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which affects red blood cell maturation but does not directly influence reticulocyte count.
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