A client at 10-weeks gestation reports a maculopapular rash on the face, fever, malaise, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy. Which laboratory result should the nurse review?

Toxoplasmosis.

Group B Streptococcus.

Gonorrhea.

Rubella.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Toxoplasmosis: While toxoplasmosis can cause symptoms similar to those described, it is not typically associated with a maculopapular rash on the face. Moreover, routine screening for toxoplasmosis is not typically performed during pregnancy unless indicated by specific risk factors.
B.   Group B Streptococcus: Group B Streptococcus is primarily associated with maternal
colonization and neonatal infection, but it does not typically present with a maculopapular rash on the face in the mother.
C.   Gonorrhea: Gonorrhea can cause systemic symptoms, but it is not commonly associated with a maculopapular rash on the face. Additionally, routine screening for gonorrhea during pregnancy typically focuses on genital sites rather than systemic symptoms.

D. Rubella: Rubella, or German measles, presents with a maculopapular rash on the face (often described as a "slapped cheek" appearance) along with fever, malaise, sore throat, and
lymphadenopathy. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which can have serious consequences for the developing fetus. Therefore, it is important to
review rubella immunity status in pregnant women presenting with these symptoms.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

- A: This choice is incorrect because a flat prone position is not safe or correct for a sigmoidoscopy; the client should be in a left lateral or Sims' position.
- B: This choice is not directly related to the immediate need of correcting the client's position for the procedure.
- C: Assuming care of the client does not address the immediate issue of the client's incorrect positioning for the sigmoidoscopy.
- D: Demonstrating the correct positioning ensures the safety and effectiveness of the procedure, which is the nurse's responsibility.

A. Provide protective undergarments for the client. B. Encourage increased fluid intake for 24 hours. C. Evaluate the client's response to bladder training efforts. D. Obtain a clean, voided urine specimen for analysis.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Providing protective undergarments may be necessary as a temporary measure to manage urinary incontinence, but it does not address the underlying cause. It should not be the initial intervention.
B. Encouraging increased fluid intake may exacerbate urinary incontinence if the cause is related to an overactive bladder or other urinary tract issues. It's important to determine the cause before recommending changes in fluid intake.
C. Evaluating the client's response to bladder training efforts is a relevant intervention for urinary incontinence, but it assumes that bladder training is appropriate for the client's condition. Before initiating bladder training, it's essential to assess the client's condition through proper evaluation.
D. Obtaining a clean, voided urine specimen for analysis is the priority intervention. It allows for diagnostic testing to identify potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as urinary tract
infections, urinary retention, or other underlying medical conditions. Once the cause is determined, appropriate interventions can be implemented, which may include bladder training, medication, or other treatments.

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A client at 10-weeks gestation reports a maculopapular rash on the face, fever, malaise, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy. Which laboratory result should the nurse review?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is setting up the equipment to assist with a sigmoidoscopy while the practical nurse (PN) positions the client in a flat prone position. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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