A charge nurse is delegating care for a group of clients.
Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse?
Complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
Complete the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke.
Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound.
Perform an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery.
The Correct Answer is C
Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound. This is because a licensed practical nurse (LPN) can perform tasks that require technical skills and have predictable outcomes, such as dressing changes. A sterile dressing change is also within the scope of practice of an LPN.
Choice A is wrong because complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires assessment, evaluation and critical thinking, which are beyond the scope of practice of an LPN. Discharge teaching is the responsibility of a registered nurse (RN) who can provide education and counseling to clients and families.
Choice B is wrong because completing the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke requires assessment and interpretation of neurological status, which are complex and unpredictable tasks that only an RN can perform. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness of a client based on eye opening, verbal response and motor response. A client who has an evolving stroke may have changes in their neurological status that require frequent monitoring and intervention by an RN.
Choice D is wrong because performing an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery requires comprehensive data collection, analysis and synthesis, which are advanced skills that only an RN can perform. An admission assessment involves obtaining a complete health history, performing a physical examination, identifying client needs and problems, and developing a plan of care.
A client who is scheduled for surgery may have complex and unpredictable needs that require specialized knowledge and judgment by an RN.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure, and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because a pulse rate of 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output of 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
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