A nurse is caring for a client. Laboratory Results
1300:
Cardiac troponin T less than 0.1 ng/mL (less than 0.1 ng/mL). LDL 110 mg/dL (less than 130 mg/dL).
Total cholesterol 230 mg/dL (less than 200 mg/dL).
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options: After notifying the provider, the nurse should first:
check a STAT cardiac troponin.
request a prescription for a beta-blocker.
administer sublingual nitroglycerin
Notify the senior
The Correct Answer is C
Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can relieve chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia. The nurse should administer it as soon as possible to improve blood flow to the heart and reduce the risk of myocardial infarction. The nurse should also monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate after giving nitroglycerin, as it can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
Choice A is wrong because checking a STAT cardiac troponin is not the first priority.
Cardiac troponin is a biomarker that indicates myocardial injury, but it may not rise until several hours after the onset of chest pain.
Therefore, it is not useful for immediate diagnosis or treatment of acute coronary syndrome. Choice B is wrong because requesting a prescription for a beta-blocker is not the first priority.
Beta-blockers are medications that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, and reduce the oxygen demand of the heart.
They can prevent or reduce the recurrence of chest pain and complications of acute coronary syndrome, but they are not indicated for immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice D is wrong because administering oxygen is not the first priority.
Oxygen therapy can increase the oxygen supply to the heart and reduce ischemia, but it is not necessary for all clients with chest pain.
Oxygen therapy should be based on the client’s oxygen saturation level and clinical condition.
If the client’s oxygen saturation is normal or high, oxygen therapy may not be beneficial and may even be harmful.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because collaboration is one of the most effective conflict-resolution strategies in nursing, as it involves finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties and improves the quality of care. Collaboration can also foster trust, respect, and teamwork among nurses, which can boost morale and efficiency.
Choice B is wrong because telling the nurses that the assignments will be more equitable in the future does not address the root cause of the conflict or involve the nurses in the decision-making process.
It also implies that the charge nurse admits to being unfair, which can damage their credibility and authority.
Choice C is wrong because asking each nurse to take turns making the assignments does not resolve the conflict, but rather avoids it. Avoidance is one of the least effective conflict management strategies in nursing, as it results in not addressing the issue or finding common ground.
Avoidance can also lead to resentment, frustration, and poor communication among nurses.
Choice D is wrong because arranging for the nurses to have as few shifts together as possible also does not resolve the conflict, but rather accommodates it. Accommodation is another ineffective conflict management strategy in nursing, as it involves giving in to one party’s demands or preferences at the expense of another’s.
Accommodation can also create a sense of inequality, injustice, and dissatisfaction among nurses.
Normal ranges for conflict-resolution strategies in nursing are not applicable, as different situations may require different approaches. However, some general guidelines are to use collaboration when both parties have important goals or interests, compromise when both parties have some common ground or willingness to give up something, competition when one party has a clear advantage or authority, avoidance when the conflict is trivial or temporary, and accommodation when one party values harmony or relationships more than their own goals or interests.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
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