A nurse is caring for a client with chest pain. Laboratory Results
1300:
Cardiac troponin T less than 0.5 ng/mL (less than 0.1 ng/mL). LDL 110 mg/dL (less than 130 mg/dL).
Total cholesterol 230 mg/dL (less than 200 mg/dL).
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options: After notifying the provider, the nurse should first:
check a STAT cardiac troponin.
request a prescription for a beta-blocker.
administer sublingual nitroglycerin
Notify the senior
The Correct Answer is C
Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can relieve chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia. The nurse should administer it as soon as possible to improve blood flow to the heart and reduce the risk of myocardial infarction. The nurse should also monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate after giving nitroglycerin, as it can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
Choice A is wrong because checking a STAT cardiac troponin is not the first priority.
Cardiac troponin is a biomarker that indicates myocardial injury, but it may not rise until several hours after the onset of chest pain.
Therefore, it is not useful for immediate diagnosis or treatment of acute coronary syndrome. Choice B is wrong because requesting a prescription for a beta-blocker is not the first priority.
Beta-blockers are medications that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, and reduce the oxygen demand of the heart.
They can prevent or reduce the recurrence of chest pain and complications of acute coronary syndrome, but they are not indicated for immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice D is wrong because administering oxygen is not the first priority.
Oxygen therapy can increase the oxygen supply to the heart and reduce ischemia, but it is not necessary for all clients with chest pain.
Oxygen therapy should be based on the client’s oxygen saturation level and clinical condition.
If the client’s oxygen saturation is normal or high, oxygen therapy may not be beneficial and may even be harmful.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation

This is because the AP’s statement constitutes an intentional tort, which is a wrong that the defendant knew or should have known would be caused by their actions. An assault is defined as intentionally putting another person in reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive contact.
The AP’s threat of using restraints and force-feeding the client could cause the client to fear for their safety and dignity, which is an assault.
Choice B is wrong because Battery is wrong because battery is defined as intentional causation of harmful or offensive contact with another person without that person’s consent.
The AP did not actually touch the client or carry out the threat, so there was no battery.
Choice C is wrong because Negligence is wrong because negligence is an unintentional tort, which occurs when the defendant’s actions or inactions were unreasonably unsafe.
The AP did not act or fail to act in a way that breached the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no negligence.
Choice D is wrong because Malpractice is wrong because malpractice is a type of negligence that involves a professional failing to perform their duties according to the standards of their profession.
The AP did not perform any professional duty or service that was below the standard of care or caused harm to the client, so there was no malpractice.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved.
Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
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