A 45 year old client with a history of drug and alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital. On day 2 the client has rapidly fluctuating moods and believes the King of England is in his room. How will the nurse document these findings?
A Overdose
B Acute dementia
C Substance abuse comorbidity
D Acute delirium
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Rationale: Documenting an overdose is premature without further assessment and evidence.
Choice B Rationale: Acute dementia is not typically diagnosed based on rapidly fluctuating moods alone, and it may not be appropriate for this situation.
Choice C Rationale: While substance abuse comorbidity may be present, it does not fully capture the client's current presentation.
Choice D Rationale: Documenting acute delirium is appropriate in this case. The client's symptoms, including rapidly fluctuating moods and delusions, are indicative of acute delirium, which can be related to substance withdrawal or other medical issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Rationale: Expressing a reluctance to go out and preferring to stay indoors is not necessarily indicative of effective adaptation.
Choice B Rationale: Preferring a bed bath may be a personal choice rather than a sign of adaptation.
Choice C Rationale: Consuming alcohol daily as a means of pleasure may not necessarily indicate effective adaptation and may raise concerns about potential dependence.
Choice D Rationale: Using modified feeding utensils at every meal and acknowledging improvement despite occasional spills indicates a positive attitude toward adaptation and learning to manage daily activities despite physical limitations.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Rationale: Applying a vest restraint should not be the first action and should only be considered as a last resort after other alternatives have been explored.
Choice B Rationale: Placing the client in bed with two side rails raised may restrict the client's mobility and is not the first choice for managing agitation.
Choice C Rationale: Placing a seat alarm in the client's chair is the first action to take because it allows the nurse to monitor the client's movements and respond promptly to any attempts to get out of the chair while ensuring safety.
Choice D Rationale: Administering lorazepam should not be the first action and should only be considered after non-pharmacological interventions have been attempted
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