A 30-year-old male patient, John, presents to the clinic with his wife. She reports that John has been experiencing periods of extreme energy and euphoria, followed by episodes of deep depression over the past several months. During his manic episodes, John engages in risky behaviors such as excessive spending and reckless driving. During his depressive episodes, he isolates himself and has expressed feelings of hopelessness. Based on this scenario, what is the priority nursing action for John?
Administer a mood stabilizer immediately.
Conduct a thorough assessment to evaluate John's safety and risk of harm to himself or others.
Schedule John for regular therapy sessions to manage his mood swings.
Educate John and his wife about the signs and symptoms of Bipolar Spectrum Disorder.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: While mood stabilizers are essential in treatment, medication cannot be safely administered before completing an assessment of risk and safety.
Choice B reason: The priority in this scenario is to assess safety, as John is at risk of harming himself or others due to reckless behavior during mania and suicidal ideation during depression. Safety always precedes treatment or education.
Choice C reason: Therapy is a valuable part of long-term management, but it is not the immediate priority when safety concerns exist.
Choice D reason: Education is important but cannot come before determining immediate risk and ensuring safety.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal by reducing withdrawal symptoms and cravings. It acts as a long-acting opioid agonist, stabilizing the client and preventing severe withdrawal effects.
Choice B reason:Risperidone is an antipsychotic used for conditions like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. It has no role in managing opioid withdrawal, as it does not address withdrawal symptoms or opioid dependence.
Choice C reason:Lithium carbonate is used to stabilize mood in bipolar disorder. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal, as it does not alleviate the physical or psychological symptoms associated with opioid cessation.
Choice D reason:Disulfiram is used to treat alcohol dependence by causing adverse reactions when alcohol is consumed. It has no therapeutic effect on opioid withdrawal and is inappropriate for this situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pseudoparkinsonism involves tremors, shuffling gait, rigidity, and bradykinesia, but it does not cause high fever, blood pressure instability, or diaphoresis.
Choice B reason: Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, or grimacing, and it develops gradually after long-term medication use. It does not cause acute systemic symptoms.
Choice C reason: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics. It presents with hyperpyrexia, autonomic instability (blood pressure changes, diaphoresis), muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. This fits the scenario.
Choice D reason: Acute dystonia is characterized by sudden, severe muscle contractions (often of the neck, eyes, or jaw) but does not include fever or autonomic instability.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.