Juan is reviewing the effects of neurotransmitter imbalances in mental health disorders. A decrease in which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with depression?
Serotonin.
Histamine.
Glutamate.
Norepinephrine.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Reduced serotonin levels are strongly associated with depression, as serotonin regulates mood, sleep, and emotional stability. Many antidepressants, such as SSRIs, work by increasing serotonin availability in the brain, supporting its role in depression.
Choice B reason: Histamine is primarily involved in immune responses, wakefulness, and allergic reactions, not mood regulation. It is not commonly linked to depression, making it an incorrect choice.
Choice C reason: Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter involved in learning and memory. While imbalances may play a role in some psychiatric conditions, it is not the primary neurotransmitter associated with depression.
Choice D reason: Norepinephrine is involved in arousal and stress responses, and its dysregulation can contribute to depression. However, serotonin is more consistently and prominently linked to the pathophysiology of depression, making it the better choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:Recalling past coping mechanisms can be helpful, but it is not the priority in acute anxiety. The client may be too overwhelmed to focus on strategies without first establishing a sense of safety.
Choice B reason:Remaining with the client is the priority, as it provides a calming presence, ensures safety, and helps reduce the client’s anxiety by offering immediate support and reassurance during an acute episode.
Choice C reason:Encouraging verbalization of feelings is therapeutic but not the priority in acute anxiety. The client may need time to calm down before they can effectively express their emotions.
Choice D reason:Providing a diverting activity may help manage mild anxiety but is not the priority in an acute, moderate episode. Staying with the client to ensure safety and reduce distress takes precedence.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pseudoparkinsonism involves tremors, shuffling gait, rigidity, and bradykinesia, but it does not cause high fever, blood pressure instability, or diaphoresis.
Choice B reason: Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, or grimacing, and it develops gradually after long-term medication use. It does not cause acute systemic symptoms.
Choice C reason: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics. It presents with hyperpyrexia, autonomic instability (blood pressure changes, diaphoresis), muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. This fits the scenario.
Choice D reason: Acute dystonia is characterized by sudden, severe muscle contractions (often of the neck, eyes, or jaw) but does not include fever or autonomic instability.
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