6-year-old child.
Vomited 3 times in the past 24 hr. Irritable behavior for the past 24 hr. The respiratory infection started 3 days ago.
Brudzinski's and Kernig's signs are positive.
Vital Signs.
Respiratory rate 28/min.
Pulse rate 120/min.
BP 108/64 mm Hg. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10. Medication Administration Record.
Vancomycin 300 mg IV q 6 hr following blood cultures.
Acetaminophen 240 mg PO q 6 hr PRN fever.
A nurse is planning care for a child during admission to the facility.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
Initiate seizure precautions.
Collect blood cultures.
Transport the child to obtain a CT scan.
The Correct Answer is B
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.
Choice B rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.
Choice C rationale:
Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Heart rate 58/min. Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic medication, can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a side effect. However, the heart rate of 58/min is within the normal range for adults, so it is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Choice B rationale:
Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL. A fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range (70-99 mg/dL) for adults. It is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Choice C rationale:
WBC count 2,900/mm3. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe reduction in white blood cell (WBC) count, which can lead to increased susceptibility to infections. A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 is significantly below the normal range (4,000-11,000/mm3) and is a contraindication for clozapine administration due to the risk of severe immunosuppression.
Choice D rationale:
Hgb 14 g/dL. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 14 g/dL is within the normal range for adult males (13.8-17.2 g/dL) and females (12.1-15.1 g/dL). It is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.