While a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube, the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Tighten the tubing connections.
Request insertion of a tracheostomy tube.
Suction the client's airway.
Look for a leak in the tube's cuff.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Tightening the tubing connections may be necessary if there is a leak in the ventilator system, but it does not address the high-pressure alarm issue. The nurse needs to address the immediate alarm situation first.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting insertion of a tracheostomy tube is not the appropriate action for a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Tracheostomy tube insertion is a significant procedure that is not indicated solely based on a high-pressure alarm.
Choice C rationale:
Suctioning the client's airway is the correct action for a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. The alarm indicates an obstruction in the airway, and suctioning can help clear any secretions or blockages, allowing the client to breathe more effectively.
Choice D rationale:
Looking for a leak in the tube's cuff may be necessary if the high-pressure alarm persists after suctioning and checking connections. Identifying and repairing any leaks can prevent further issues with ventilation. However, immediate action should be taken to clear the airway first, as indicated by suctioning.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A. This client is at risk of harming themselves by removing the IV line, which could cause bleeding, infection, or loss of medication. This is a priority issue that requires immediate intervention by the nurse.
- B. This client is experiencing a common side effect of pain medication, which can be managed by administering antiemetics, fluids, or changing the medication. This is not a life-threatening issue and can be addressed after attending to the client in choice A.
- C. This client has a chronic condition that requires regular dialysis, but they are not in acute distress at this time. They should be monitored for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalance, or infection, but they are not a priority over the client in choice A.
- D. This client has a psychosocial need that should be respected and supported by the nurse, but it is not an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. The nurse can arrange for a visit from the chaplain after attending to the client in choice A.
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