Which statement is true regarding hemophilia?
Hemophilia is not hereditary in nature.
Hemophilia can be treated by replacement therapy.
Hemophilia is an X-linked dominant genetic disorder.
Hemophilia B is the most common form of hemophilia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Hemophilia is a hereditary disorder caused by a deficiency of specific clotting factors, and it is indeed hereditary in nature. This statement is incorrect.
Choice B rationale:
Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder where the blood does not clot properly. Replacement therapy, which involves infusing clotting factor concentrates, is a standard treatment for hemophilia. This statement is correct.
Choice C rationale:
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder, not dominant. Males are more commonly affected because they have only one X chromosome, and if it carries the defective gene, they will have hemophilia. Females have two X chromosomes, and if one X chromosome carries the defective gene, the other X chromosome can compensate, making them carriers but not typically affected.
Choice D rationale:
Hemophilia A is the most common form of hemophilia, not hemophilia B.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A low level of hepcidin would not cause a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Hepcidin regulates iron homeostasis by inhibiting the absorption of iron from the intestines and promoting its storage in cells.
Choice B rationale:
An increase in iron-binding capacity typically occurs in conditions like iron deficiency anemia, where the body tries to increase its capacity to transport iron. This would not cause a low hemoglobin level in an otherwise healthy individual.
Choice C rationale:
Aging often leads to a decrease in the efficiency of nutrient absorption, including iron. This decrease in intestinal absorption of iron can result in low hemoglobin levels in elderly individuals. It's a common cause of anemia in the elderly population.
Choice D rationale:
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the production of red blood cells. A decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys would lead to anemia, but it is not a typical effect of aging and is usually associated with kidney disease.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic stable angina typically occurs with activity and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice B rationale:
Chronic stable angina usually lasts for a short duration, usually around 5 minutes, and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Prolonged pain lasting 10-15 minutes or more could indicate an unstable angina or myocardial infarction. This choice is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice C rationale:
Pain due to chronic stable angina subsides when the precipitating factor, such as physical exertion, is resolved or with medication like nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice D rationale:
Chronic stable angina follows a predictable pattern, occurring intermittently over a period of time, and is usually triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress. This option correctly describes the characteristic pattern of chronic stable angina.
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