Which of the following statements matches correctly the term with the correct description.
Gallstones cholangitis: stones in the common bile duct = cholelithiasis; inflammation of the common bile duct-cholecystitis; inflammation of the gall bladder-choledocholithiasis
Gall stones = cholangitis; stones in the common bile duct = cholecystitis; inflammation of the common bile duct = choledocholitiasis; inflammation of the gall bladder cholelithiasis
Gallstones = cholelithiasis: stones in the common bile duct = cholecystitis; inflammation of the common bile duct = choledocholithiasis; inflammation of the gall bladder cholangitis
Gall stones = cholelithiasis; stones in the common bile duct-cholelithiasis; inflammation of the common bile duct = cholangitis; inflammation of the gall bladder - cholecystitis
The Correct Answer is D
A. This option incorrectly matches the terms: cholelithiasis refers to gallstones, not stones in the common bile duct; cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, not the common bile duct; choledocholithiasis refers to stones in the common bile duct, not inflammation.
B. This option reverses definitions: cholangitis is inflammation of the common bile duct, not gallstones; cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, not stones in the common bile duct; choledocholithiasis refers to stones in the common bile duct, not inflammation.
C. This option mislabels choledocholithiasis as inflammation of the common bile duct, but it actually refers to stones in the common bile duct; cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, not stones in the common bile duct; cholangitis is inflammation of the common bile duct, not the gallbladder.
D. This option correctly matches the terms: cholelithiasis means gallstones; choledocholithiasis refers to stones in the common bile duct; cholangitis is inflammation of the common bile duct; cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F","I"]
Explanation
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Heart rate: 92/min: Improved from 109/min on Day 1, showing better autonomic control.
A heart rate within normal range indicates reduced stress or inflammation. This suggests pain management and fluid status have improved. -
Respiratory rate: 20/min: Improved from 26/min, now within normal limits. This reflects decreased respiratory effort and better oxygenation. The labored breathing on Day 1 has also resolved.
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Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air: Increased from 93% on Day 1, indicating improved gas exchange. No supplemental oxygen was required, suggesting stable pulmonary function.
This is a positive sign especially given the initial diminished breath sounds. -
Client rates pain as 3/10 after medication: The pain is down from 8/10 on Day 1, showing effective analgesia. Pain control improves patient comfort and respiratory status. The pain was likely contributing to tachypnea and lethargy on Day 1.
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Respirations even and unlabored; chest clear on auscultation: Improved from "rapid, labored" with "diminished" breath sounds on day 1 which suggests resolution of respiratory compromise and pain-related restriction. Likely associated with improved oxygen saturation and decreased fatigue..
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Passing flatus: This indicates return of peristalsis and some bowel activity. These findings were not present on Day 1, showing progress. Flatus passage often precedes return to full bowel function.
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Urinating without difficulty; urine clear yellow: These findings indicate stable renal function, no hematuria or concentration issues. The findings were maintained across both days, with no signs of obstruction or dehydration which uggests effective fluid balance and kidney perfusion.
Rationale for Incorrect Findings:
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Bowel sounds hypoactive in all quadrants: No change from Day 1, suggests slow GI recovery. Hypoactivity may reflect paralytic ileus or continued inflammation.
Despite passage of flatus, bowel function remains impaired. -
Client vomiting brown liquid and reports continuing nausea: This is a new symptom on Day 2, worsening GI symptoms despite earlier improvement. Brown emesis may suggest delayed gastric emptying or possible GI bleeding.
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Reports extreme fatigue: Fatigue is more severe than Day 1's lethargy and may reflect nutritional deficits, systemic inflammation, or sleep disruption. Despite improved pain and respiratory status, overall energy is low.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Tubular necrosis: Tubular necrosis refers to the death of tubular epithelial cells in the kidneys, commonly due to ischemia or toxins. This is not the primary defect in Potter syndrome, which involves developmental abnormalities rather than acute tubular injury.
B. Renal hyperplasia: Hyperplasia means increased cell number leading to organ enlargement. Potter syndrome typically involves renal hypoplasia or agenesis rather than hyperplasia, so this is not consistent with the syndrome’s defect.
C. Renal failure: Potter syndrome primarily results from bilateral renal agenesis or severe renal dysplasia, leading to absent or nonfunctional kidneys and subsequent renal failure. The lack of functional kidneys leads to oligohydramnios and the characteristic features of Potter syndrome.
D. Renal metaplasia: Metaplasia refers to abnormal transformation of one differentiated tissue type into another. This process is not the main defect in Potter syndrome, which is related to kidney development failure rather than abnormal tissue differentiation.
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