Which of the following clients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis would the nurse identify as most at risk for developing a cholinergic crisis? A client who
reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication.
is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath.
has a family history of autoimmune disorders.
has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication."
This client is at highest risk for developing a cholinergic crisis. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overdose or excessive stimulation of acetylcholine receptors due to too much anticholinesterase medication. Symptoms include muscle weakness, respiratory distress, salivation, sweating, and bradycardia. Taking an extra dose of the medication can result in an overdose of acetylcholine, triggering these symptoms. Therefore, this client is at the greatest risk for a cholinergic crisis.
B. "Is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath."
While respiratory infections can worsen symptoms of myasthenia gravis due to increased muscle weakness, this client is not directly at risk for a cholinergic crisis. Respiratory infections can increase the risk of myasthenic crisis, which is a different complication where muscle weakness worsens to the point of respiratory failure. A myasthenic crisis is caused by insufficient anticholinesterase medication or a disease exacerbation, not an overdose.
C. "Has a family history of autoimmune disorders."
A family history of autoimmune disorders may suggest a genetic predisposition to autoimmune diseases, but it does not increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis specifically. The risk of a cholinergic crisis is more directly related to medication management, not family history.
D. "Has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus."
Type 2 diabetes mellitus does not directly increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis. While diabetes may influence overall health and immune function, it does not have a direct impact on anticholinesterase therapy or the risk of cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. In the prone position:
The prone position has been shown to be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, particularly in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), where it can help improve oxygenation by redistributing blood flow in the lungs. However, prone positioning is typically not the first choice for pneumonia, especially when it is localized to specific lobes of the lung. It is more commonly used in cases of diffuse bilateral lung injury or severe hypoxemia. Therefore, while prone positioning can improve oxygenation in ARDS, it is not specifically targeted for secretion removal in localized pneumonia.
B. In high-Fowler's position:
The high-Fowler's position (sitting up at a 60-90 degree angle) can help with dyspnea and promote lung expansion in conditions like heart failure or dyspneic states. However, for pneumonia, it is not as effective as lateral positioning for facilitating secretion drainage from specific lung lobes. The high-Fowler's position may be useful for promoting overall comfort and reducing dyspnea, but it is not the best position for improving secretion removal from the right middle and lower lobes.
C. On the left side:
Positioning the patient on the left side is not ideal for right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, as it would not optimize drainage from the affected lobes. The right middle and lower lobes are better drained when the patient is positioned on the right side, as gravity can help move the secretions from the affected lobes toward the larger airways for easier clearance.
D. On the right side: In the case of right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, positioning the client on the right side can help optimize ventilation and promote better secretion removal from the affected areas of the lung. This position allows gravity to assist in draining secretions from the right middle and lower lobes toward the larger airways, where they can be more easily cleared by coughing or suctioning. This positioning can improve oxygenation and facilitate secretion management, which is crucial for improving respiratory function in pneumonia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis: Fully compensated respiratory acidosis would involve a low pH (indicative of acidosis), elevated PaCO2 (due to impaired ventilation), and a normal HCO3 level as compensation by the kidneys. The given ABG results show metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation, not respiratory acidosis.
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis: In respiratory acidosis, you would expect an elevated PaCO2 (not low, as seen here) and a compensatory increase in HCO3. However, the ABG results show low HCO3 and low PaCO2, indicating that this is metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis.
C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis: Uncompensated metabolic acidosis would be indicated by a low pH and low bicarbonate (HCO3), with normal PaCO2. Since the PaCO2 is low, this suggests partial respiratory compensation, making this scenario not uncompensated but partially compensated.
D. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis: To interpret these ABG results, let's break down the values:
pH 7.32 (normal range: 7.35–7.45) indicates acidosis, as it is below the normal range.
PaCO2 33 mmHg (normal range: 35–45 mmHg) is low, suggesting that respiratory compensation is occurring to counteract the acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the lungs typically attempt to blow off CO2 to reduce acid levels, which is why PaCO2 is low here.
HCO3 16 mEq/L (normal range: 22–25 mEq/L) is low, confirming a metabolic acidosis. The low bicarbonate level is characteristic of metabolic acidosis, where the body loses too much bicarbonate or produces too much acid. PaO2 88 mmHg (normal range: 80–95 mmHg) is within the normal range and does not indicate a significant respiratory issue.
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