The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The client's ABG reveals: pH 7.59, PaCO2 29 mmHg, Pa02 55 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L, and 02 saturation 72%. What would be the expected assessment finding?
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Table 9.9 Normal Arterial Blood Gas Values |
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ABG Value. Normal Value |
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pH 7.35-7.45 |
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PaCO2 35-45 mmHg |
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HCO3- 22-26mEq/L |
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Base excess -2 to +2 |
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PaO2 80-95 mmHg |
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SaO2 >95% |
respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute.
respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute.
blood pressure 86/42 mmHg.
heart rate of 45 beats per minute.
The Correct Answer is B
Explanation of each option:
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would be too slow in a patient with ARDS and hypoxemia. In response to hypoxemia, the body typically increases the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would not be expected in this situation.
B. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute: The arterial blood gas (ABG) results indicate respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia, which is a common finding in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). pH 7.59: This is alkalotic, meaning the body is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
PaCO2 29 mmHg: The PaCO2 is low, indicating hyperventilation, which is a compensatory response to the alkalosis in an attempt to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
PaO2 55 mmHg: This is severely low, indicating hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood), a hallmark of ARDS. HCO3 22 mEq/L: The bicarbonate is normal, suggesting that the metabolic component has not yet compensated for the respiratory alkalosis, or that it is in the early stages of compensation. Given these ABG results, the body is attempting to compensate for hypoxemia by increasing respiratory rate (tachypnea), which leads to hyperventilation and further reduction in PaCO2. Therefore, an expected assessment finding in this scenario would be a high respiratory rate (such as 32 breaths per minute), which is a compensatory response to hypoxemia.
C. Blood pressure 86/42 mmHg:
While hypotension can occur in severe cases of ARDS due to impaired oxygenation and circulation, it is not directly reflected by the ABG results provided. Hypoxemia and alkalosis would more likely lead to tachypnea and compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia, rather than significant hypotension unless there is another contributing factor, such as shock or sepsis. Therefore, hypotension is not the most expected finding based on these ABGs.
D. Heart rate of 45 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 45 beats per minute is bradycardic, which would be unusual in a patient with hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis. Tachycardia is a more common compensatory response to hypoxia, as the heart works harder to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. A heart rate of 45 beats per minute would be more suggestive of a different underlying condition, such as vagal stimulation or cardiac conduction issues, but it is not the expected response in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Recent intake of sildenafil:
While there is a potential drug interaction between atenolol (a beta-blocker) and sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction), this alone would not necessarily be an indication to hold atenolol. Sildenafil can cause hypotension, which might be exacerbated by atenolol, especially in older adults or those with cardiovascular issues. However, this interaction usually requires monitoring rather than immediate discontinuation of atenolol, unless the client is symptomatic (e.g., feeling faint, dizziness). If symptoms of hypotension occur after taking both medications, the nurse would assess the client's condition but would not automatically hold atenolol based solely on this information.
B. Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56: The most concerning finding in a client receiving atenolol (a beta-blocker) for angina is a heart rate of 52 beats per minute (bradycardia) and a blood pressure of 90/56 mmHg (hypotension). Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, work by reducing the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is below the typical threshold of 60 beats per minute and indicates bradycardia, which could worsen due to the medication's effects. Additionally, hypotension (blood pressure 90/56) can be dangerous, especially when combined with bradycardia. Both of these findings suggest that the client may be experiencing excessive beta-blockade, which could lead to severe complications such as cardiogenic shock or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should hold the medication and contact the provider for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.
C. Restlessness and mild confusion:
Restlessness and mild confusion could indicate several possible issues, such as hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. While beta-blockers can cause side effects like fatigue or depression, restlessness and confusion are not common acute reactions to atenolol. However, if these symptoms are due to hypotension or bradycardia from the atenolol, then holding the medication and notifying the provider may be warranted. Nonetheless, these symptoms alone are not a clear cause to immediately hold atenolol without further assessment.
D. Positional vertigo and wheezing:
Positional vertigo can occur due to a variety of causes, including inner ear issues, hypotension, or even medication side effects. Wheezing, however, raises concerns about potential bronchospasm, which is a known side effect of non-cardioselective beta-blockers. Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, meaning it is less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-cardioselective agents like propranolol. While wheezing could indicate a reaction to the medication, it is not a primary concern with atenolol, unless the client has a history of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). If wheezing occurs, the nurse should still monitor the client but would not necessarily hold atenolol immediately unless the symptoms are severe.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Administer antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications to prevent further clot formation:
While antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications are essential in the management of STEMI to reduce the risk of further clot formation, they are not the primary goal of treatment in the immediate phase. These medications are typically administered before or during the procedure (such as during cardiac catheterization) to prevent new clots, but the primary objective is to restore blood flow to the heart muscle through reperfusion therapy, either by angioplasty or thrombolytics.
B) Relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the heart muscle:
This is the primary goal of treatment in STEMI. The most urgent intervention for a client with an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is to relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the ischemic heart muscle. This is typically achieved through percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via cardiac catheterization, which involves either angioplasty (ballooning the artery) or stent placement. Restoring blood flow as quickly as possible reduces the extent of myocardial damage, improves the prognosis, and prevents complications like heart failure.
C) Provide pain relief and initiate cardiac rehabilitation:
Pain relief is important in the initial management of STEMI, typically with nitroglycerin and opioids for chest pain. However, the immediate goal in the ED is to address the underlying cause of the chest pain, which is the blockage of blood flow. Cardiac rehabilitation, while essential for long-term recovery, is not the immediate goal of treatment during the acute phase of a STEMI. The primary focus should be on restoring circulation to the affected myocardium.
D) Stabilize the client's blood pressure and administer thrombolytic therapy:
Stabilizing the client’s blood pressure is important, especially if the client is hypotensive, but it is not the main treatment goal. Thrombolytic therapy (clot-busting medications) is an option if PCI is not available or if it needs to be done within a certain time frame; however, the current best practice in STEMI is to perform PCI as soon as possible. Thrombolytics are typically used when PCI is not immediately available, but the ideal treatment is to restore blood flow through catheterization in a timely manner, as it is more effective than thrombolytic therapy at re-opening the blocked artery.
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