The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory failure as a result of right middle and lower lobe pneumonia. To optimize ventilation and secretion removal the nurse should position the client:
in the prone position.
in high-Fowler's position.
on the left side.
on the right side.
The Correct Answer is D
A. In the prone position:
The prone position has been shown to be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, particularly in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), where it can help improve oxygenation by redistributing blood flow in the lungs. However, prone positioning is typically not the first choice for pneumonia, especially when it is localized to specific lobes of the lung. It is more commonly used in cases of diffuse bilateral lung injury or severe hypoxemia. Therefore, while prone positioning can improve oxygenation in ARDS, it is not specifically targeted for secretion removal in localized pneumonia.
B. In high-Fowler's position:
The high-Fowler's position (sitting up at a 60-90 degree angle) can help with dyspnea and promote lung expansion in conditions like heart failure or dyspneic states. However, for pneumonia, it is not as effective as lateral positioning for facilitating secretion drainage from specific lung lobes. The high-Fowler's position may be useful for promoting overall comfort and reducing dyspnea, but it is not the best position for improving secretion removal from the right middle and lower lobes.
C. On the left side:
Positioning the patient on the left side is not ideal for right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, as it would not optimize drainage from the affected lobes. The right middle and lower lobes are better drained when the patient is positioned on the right side, as gravity can help move the secretions from the affected lobes toward the larger airways for easier clearance.
D. On the right side: In the case of right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, positioning the client on the right side can help optimize ventilation and promote better secretion removal from the affected areas of the lung. This position allows gravity to assist in draining secretions from the right middle and lower lobes toward the larger airways, where they can be more easily cleared by coughing or suctioning. This positioning can improve oxygenation and facilitate secretion management, which is crucial for improving respiratory function in pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Explanation of each option:
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would be too slow in a patient with ARDS and hypoxemia. In response to hypoxemia, the body typically increases the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would not be expected in this situation.
B. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute: The arterial blood gas (ABG) results indicate respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia, which is a common finding in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). pH 7.59: This is alkalotic, meaning the body is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
PaCO2 29 mmHg: The PaCO2 is low, indicating hyperventilation, which is a compensatory response to the alkalosis in an attempt to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
PaO2 55 mmHg: This is severely low, indicating hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood), a hallmark of ARDS. HCO3 22 mEq/L: The bicarbonate is normal, suggesting that the metabolic component has not yet compensated for the respiratory alkalosis, or that it is in the early stages of compensation. Given these ABG results, the body is attempting to compensate for hypoxemia by increasing respiratory rate (tachypnea), which leads to hyperventilation and further reduction in PaCO2. Therefore, an expected assessment finding in this scenario would be a high respiratory rate (such as 32 breaths per minute), which is a compensatory response to hypoxemia.
C. Blood pressure 86/42 mmHg:
While hypotension can occur in severe cases of ARDS due to impaired oxygenation and circulation, it is not directly reflected by the ABG results provided. Hypoxemia and alkalosis would more likely lead to tachypnea and compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia, rather than significant hypotension unless there is another contributing factor, such as shock or sepsis. Therefore, hypotension is not the most expected finding based on these ABGs.
D. Heart rate of 45 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 45 beats per minute is bradycardic, which would be unusual in a patient with hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis. Tachycardia is a more common compensatory response to hypoxia, as the heart works harder to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. A heart rate of 45 beats per minute would be more suggestive of a different underlying condition, such as vagal stimulation or cardiac conduction issues, but it is not the expected response in this case.
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