Which clinical manifestation would the nurse use to indicate that the status of an older adult patient (greater than age 75) with chronic heart failure condition is worsening?
Presence of fine tremors
Heart rate 50 per minute
+1 peripheral edema
Increased confusion
The Correct Answer is D
A. Presence of fine tremors: Fine tremors are not a typical sign of worsening heart failure. They may be associated with medications (like bronchodilators or lithium), metabolic issues, or neurologic disorders, but not directly with heart failure decompensation.
B. Heart rate 50 per minute: Bradycardia may be notable, especially in the context of beta-blocker therapy, but a heart rate of 50 bpm in a stable patient is not necessarily a sign of worsening heart failure unless accompanied by symptoms like dizziness or hypotension.
C. +1 peripheral edema: Mild peripheral edema is often chronic and common in older adults with heart failure. It does not reliably indicate worsening status unless there is a significant increase in edema or associated weight gain and pulmonary symptoms.
D. Increased confusion: Older adults are more susceptible to changes in cognitive function due to decreased cardiac output in worsening heart failure. New or worsening confusion in older adults is a key sign of decreased cerebral perfusion and may signal worsening heart failure. It can also indicate hypoxia or electrolyte imbalance, making it a critical finding that warrants immediate evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dopamine and 50% non-rebreather mask: Dopamine is a vasopressor used in hypotension or shock, an inotropic agent used to improve cardiac output, not typically first-line for anxiety or respiratory distress. A non-rebreather mask may provide high oxygen levels but can be overwhelming and exacerbate anxiety if not well tolerated.
B. Nesiritide IV infusion and digoxin PO: Nesiritide is a vasodilator which may reduce preload and afterload in heart failure, and digoxin is a positive inotrope that can improve contractility, but neither offers rapid relief for anxiety and dyspnea. These medications have slower onset and are not used primarily for symptom control in acute distress.
C. Diazepam IV push and metoprolol IV: While diazepam may reduce anxiety, it can depress respiration, which is dangerous in decompensated heart failure with potential pulmonary edema. Metoprolol reduces heart rate and contractility and must be used cautiously in acute settings.
D. Morphine IV and oxygen 2 liters via nasal cannula: Morphine reduces preload, anxiety, and the sensation of breathlessness, making it ideal in acute decompensated heart failure. Low-flow oxygen improves oxygenation without overwhelming the patient. This combination directly targets both physiologic and psychological distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer the dose later in the day when their nausea subsides: Delaying the dose does not address the underlying concern of potential digoxin toxicity. Symptoms like nausea and visual disturbances suggest toxicity and require immediate assessment rather than postponement.
B. Assess the client's apical rate: The first and most appropriate nursing action is to assess the apical heart rate for one full minute, as bradycardia is a key indicator of digoxin toxicity. If the rate is below 60 bpm, the dose should be held, and the provider should be notified.
C. Contact the physician for STAT serum potassium level: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but while checking potassium is important, it is not the first step. Assessment of heart rate is more immediately critical in evaluating the need to hold the medication.
D. Administer the client's prescribed dose intravenously: Administering the dose especially IV when the client has symptoms of toxicity could worsen the situation. Digoxin should be held, not given, until further evaluation and provider notification.
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