Which clinical manifestation would the nurse use to indicate that the status of an older adult patient (greater than age 75) with chronic heart failure condition is worsening?
Presence of fine tremors
Heart rate 50 per minute
+1 peripheral edema
Increased confusion
The Correct Answer is D
A. Presence of fine tremors: Fine tremors are not a typical sign of worsening heart failure. They may be associated with medications (like bronchodilators or lithium), metabolic issues, or neurologic disorders, but not directly with heart failure decompensation.
B. Heart rate 50 per minute: Bradycardia may be notable, especially in the context of beta-blocker therapy, but a heart rate of 50 bpm in a stable patient is not necessarily a sign of worsening heart failure unless accompanied by symptoms like dizziness or hypotension.
C. +1 peripheral edema: Mild peripheral edema is often chronic and common in older adults with heart failure. It does not reliably indicate worsening status unless there is a significant increase in edema or associated weight gain and pulmonary symptoms.
D. Increased confusion: Older adults are more susceptible to changes in cognitive function due to decreased cardiac output in worsening heart failure. New or worsening confusion in older adults is a key sign of decreased cerebral perfusion and may signal worsening heart failure. It can also indicate hypoxia or electrolyte imbalance, making it a critical finding that warrants immediate evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer amiodarone 200 mg IV push: Amiodarone is used for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) that are refractory to defibrillation. The rhythm on the monitor is asystole, which is non-shockable, and amiodarone is not indicated here.
B. Defibrillate the client using 200 joules: Defibrillation is only appropriate for shockable rhythms such as VF or pulseless VT. Asystole is not shockable, and defibrillation in this rhythm would be ineffective and inappropriate.
C. CPR until the physician stops the code: The rhythm strip shows asystole, a flatline with no electrical activity. The priority intervention is to initiate and continue high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately and continue until the code is terminated by the physician. This is consistent with Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines.
D. Administer adenosine 12 mg IV push: Adenosine is used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is not indicated in asystole or during cardiac arrest. It would have no effect in a rhythm with no electrical activity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Complete the remainder of the assessment: While ongoing assessment is important, the rhythm strip shows atrial flutter, a potentially unstable arrhythmia, and the client is experiencing symptoms (nausea after breakfast) which could suggest compromised cardiac output. Completing the remainder assessment delays the necessary intervention.
B. Obtain an order for adenosine IV: Adenosine is typically used for stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), not for atrial flutter, as it may not terminate the rhythm. It may slow conduction enough to better visualize flutter waves, but initiating it without a provider's order or further evaluation is inappropriate.
C. Notify the physician of the symptoms: The client’s rhythm strip shows atrial flutter with a rapid ventricular response and the patient is experiencing nausea, which could indicate decreased perfusion or early decompensation. Immediately notifying the provider is the safest and most appropriate action for further evaluation and treatment planning.
D. Administer the prescribed ACE inhibitor: ACE inhibitors are used for blood pressure control or heart failure management, not for acute rhythm disturbances. Administering it would not address the current rhythm or symptoms and could worsen hypotension if cardiac output is compromised.
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