The occupational health nurse is evaluating a patient who is 3 weeks post pacemaker insertion. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate at this time?
Assessing the incision for any redness, swelling, or discharge
Applying wet-to-dry dressings every 4 hours to the insertion site
Reinforcing the pressure dressing as needed
Encouraging range-of-motion exercises of the involved arm
The Correct Answer is A
A. Assessing the incision for any redness, swelling, or discharge: At 3 weeks post pacemaker insertion, the wound should be well into the healing process. Monitoring for signs of infection—such as redness, swelling, or discharge—remains a top priority to identify delayed wound complications like infection or erosion.
B. Applying wet-to-dry dressings every 4 hours to the insertion site: Wet-to-dry dressings are used for debridement of open wounds with significant drainage and necrotic tissue, not for healing surgical incisions. By 3 weeks post-procedure, the site should be dry and closed; such dressing changes would be inappropriate and potentially increase risk of infection.
C. Reinforcing the pressure dressing as needed: Pressure dressings are typically used in the immediate post-operative period to control bleeding and are not maintained weeks after insertion. Reinforcing one at this stage would suggest poor wound healing or inappropriate post-op management.
D. Encouraging range-of-motion exercises of the involved arm: While regaining full range of motion is important after pacemaker insertion, it's usually initiated gradually. Gentle arm movement may be resumed after a few weeks but early aggressive range-of-motion exercises are discouraged immediately post-insertion to prevent lead dislodgement. At the 3-week mark, movement should be cautious and per the provider’s specific clearance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. gabapentin & acetaminophen: While acetaminophen may help with pain relief, gabapentin is primarily used for neuropathic pain and not effective for the inflammatory chest pain associated with pericarditis. These medications do not address the positional nature of pericardial pain.
B. extended release opioids: Opioids may provide general pain relief but are not the standard treatment for pericarditis-related pain. They do not address the inflammatory cause and carry risks of sedation and respiratory depression without improving cardiac inflammation.
C. sitting & leaning forward: Pericarditis pain is classically relieved by having the patient sit up and lean forward. This position reduces pressure on the pericardium and decreases pain by allowing the inflamed pericardial layers to separate slightly, reducing friction.
D. supine with head of bed 15 degrees: Lying flat or even slightly elevated can worsen pericarditis pain because it increases pressure on the inflamed pericardium. Patients often report increased discomfort in the supine position, making it less favorable for symptom relief.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Atria is taking longer to depolarize and contract: This would be indicated by a prolonged or abnormal P wave, not a normal PR interval. The rhythm strip shows clearly visible, normal-appearing P waves followed by QRS complexes, ruling this out as the correct interpretation.
B. Conduction time is slowed from the SA node to the ventricles: A slowed conduction time would result in a PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds, characteristic of first-degree AV block. The PR interval on this strip measures within the standard range (0.12–0.20 seconds), so this is not accurate.
C. The PR interval is within the normal time limits: The PR interval on the ECG strip spans about 3 to 4 small boxes (0.12–0.16 seconds), which is within the normal range of 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. This indicates normal conduction from the atria through the AV node to the ventricles.
D. Ventricular repolarization is delayed: Delayed ventricular repolarization refers to a prolonged QT interval, not an abnormality in the PR interval. The PR interval evaluates atrial conduction, not ventricular repolarization, so this is an incorrect association.
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