The nurse is administering tamsulosin to a client. Which disease process should the nurse expect to find in the client's past medical history?
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Congestive Heart Failure
Rheumatic Fever
Coronary Artery Disease
The Correct Answer is A
A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker specifically prescribed to relieve urinary symptoms caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the bladder neck and prostate, improving urine flow and decreasing bladder outlet obstruction.
B. Congestive Heart Failure: Tamsulosin is not indicated for heart failure management. Medications used in heart failure typically include ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, diuretics, and aldosterone antagonists not selective alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin.
C. Rheumatic Fever: Rheumatic fever is linked to valvular heart disease, not urinary retention or prostate enlargement. Tamsulosin does not have a role in its treatment or management.
D. Coronary Artery Disease: Tamsulosin does not have any therapeutic effect in managing coronary artery disease. CAD is typically managed with medications such as beta blockers, statins, antiplatelets, and nitrates, depending on the clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. vegetative embolization to the kidneys: Infective endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Vegetations (clumps of bacteria, fibrin, and platelets) can form on the damaged heart structures. These vegetations are fragile and can break off, forming emboli that travel through the bloodstream to various organs. Embolization to the kidneys can cause renal infarction, leading to sharp flank pain due to ischemia or infarction of kidney tissue and hematuria.
B. hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms: While some bacteria can cause hemolysis, it is not typically associated with localized flank pain. Hemolysis would present with systemic signs such as jaundice, fatigue, and anemia, not acute flank pain and visible hematuria.
C. septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow: Septicemia may impair renal perfusion over time but would more likely lead to generalized signs of acute kidney injury, such as oliguria and rising creatinine levels, rather than acute flank pain and hematuria.
D. bacterial infection in the kidneys: Acute pyelonephritis can cause flank pain and hematuria, but in the context of infective endocarditis, embolic events are a more likely and urgent explanation for new-onset symptoms, particularly sharp localized pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. BP 105/70 manually & flat neck veins: This blood pressure is within a low-normal range, and flat neck veins suggest no evidence of right-sided heart failure or cardiac tamponade. Though the patient needs evaluation, these findings are not emergent.
B. Equal breath sounds with a respiratory rate of 28: A mildly elevated respiratory rate can indicate distress, but equal breath sounds suggest the absence of pneumothorax or hemothorax. While the patient is symptomatic, this finding alone doesn't demand the most urgent intervention.
C. Distended neck veins & muffled heart sounds: These are classic signs of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening emergency that can occur due to pacemaker lead perforation. This condition results in fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac, impairing cardiac output and requiring immediate intervention such as pericardiocentesis.
D. Heart rate 105 & respiratory rate of 28: These are signs of physiological compensation and indicate stress or early decompensation. However, without signs like neck vein distention or muffled heart sounds, they are less critical than the findings in option C.
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