The nurse is administering tamsulosin to a client. Which disease process should the nurse expect to find in the client's past medical history?
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Congestive Heart Failure
Rheumatic Fever
Coronary Artery Disease
The Correct Answer is A
A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker specifically prescribed to relieve urinary symptoms caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the bladder neck and prostate, improving urine flow and decreasing bladder outlet obstruction.
B. Congestive Heart Failure: Tamsulosin is not indicated for heart failure management. Medications used in heart failure typically include ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, diuretics, and aldosterone antagonists not selective alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin.
C. Rheumatic Fever: Rheumatic fever is linked to valvular heart disease, not urinary retention or prostate enlargement. Tamsulosin does not have a role in its treatment or management.
D. Coronary Artery Disease: Tamsulosin does not have any therapeutic effect in managing coronary artery disease. CAD is typically managed with medications such as beta blockers, statins, antiplatelets, and nitrates, depending on the clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. ambulate in the hall 3 times daily without shortness of breath: This directly reflects improved tolerance to activity, the central focus of the nursing diagnosis. Being able to ambulate without dyspnea indicates better cardiac output and ventricular function, marking resolution of the identified problem.
B. have an increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg during activity: A rise in systolic pressure may occur with exertion, but it does not necessarily indicate improved activity tolerance. In fact, an exaggerated BP response could indicate the heart is working harder than it should to meet the demands, suggesting poor cardiovascular adaptation to exercise.
C. decrease weight from 150 lbs. (68.2 kg.) to 148 lbs. (67.3 kg.) in five days: A slight weight reduction may reflect decreased fluid retention, but this outcome is more relevant to volume status and fluid balance than to resolving activity intolerance specifically.
D. verbalize the signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure by discharge:
While important for client education and self-management, this outcome relates to knowledge rather than physical tolerance to activity. It does not directly measure resolution of activity intolerance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic that primarily works by blocking potassium channels, thereby prolonging repolarization and the action potential duration. It is used to manage various atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia.
B. Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases myocardial contractility and slows conduction through the AV node. It does not affect potassium channels directly but rather works by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
C. Verapamil: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker (Class IV antiarrhythmic) that slows conduction through the AV node and is used to treat supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and hypertension. It has no significant effect on potassium channels.
D. Carvedilol: Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker with some alpha-blocking effects. It reduces heart rate and blood pressure but does not block potassium channels or have antiarrhythmic properties in that classification.
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