Which blood pressure (BP) finding during the second trimester indicates a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Baseline BP 140/85, current BP 129/80
Baseline BP 110/70, current BP 145/85
Baseline BP 120/80, current BP 126/85
Baseline BP 110/60, current BP 120/63
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
This is incorrect because a decrease in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 140/85 mm Hg indicates pre-existing hypertension, which may or may not worsen during pregnancy. A current BP of 129/80 mm Hg indicates an improvement in the BP control, but not a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice B rationale
This is correct because an increase in BP from the baseline by 30 mm Hg systolic or 15 mm Hg diastolic is a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 110/70 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 145/85 mm Hg indicates a significant elevation in the BP, which could lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, or placental abruption.
Choice C rationale
This is incorrect because a slight increase in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 120/80 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 126/85 mm Hg indicates a minor elevation in the BP, which is within the normal range and does not pose a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice D rationale
This is incorrect because a slight increase in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 110/60 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 120/63 mm Hg indicates a minor elevation in the systolic BP, but a decrease in the diastolic BP, which is within the normal range and does not pose a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is not the most likely diagnosis for the client. Gestational hypertension is a condition where the blood pressure is elevated after 20 weeks of gestation, without any signs of proteinuria or end-organ damage. The client has a history of chronic hypertension for 5 years, which means that the hypertension existed before the pregnancy. The client also has proteinuria, which is a sign of preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia is the most likely diagnosis for the client. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia is a condition where the blood pressure is elevated before 20 weeks of gestation, and the hypertension worsens or the proteinuria develops or increases after 20 weeks of gestation. The client has a history of chronic hypertension for 5 years, and the blood pressure is very high at 34 weeks of gestation. The client also has 3+ proteinuria, which indicates severe preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Eclampsia is not the most likely diagnosis for the client. Eclampsia is a condition where the preeclampsia progresses to cause seizures or coma in the pregnant woman. The client has no signs of seizures or coma, but only signs of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
HELLP syndrome is not the most likely diagnosis for the client. HELLP syndrome is a condition where the preeclampsia causes hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets in the pregnant woman. The client has no signs of hemolysis, liver damage, or thrombocytopenia, but only signs of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A:
This is the correct choice. An unstageable pressure ulcer is a wound that has full-thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered by slough (yellow, tan, gray, green, or brown) and/or eschar (tan, brown, or black) in the wound bed. The blackened area in the center of the wound suggests the presence of eschar.
Choice B:
A stage 2 pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. This does not match the description of the wound.
Choice C:
Deep tissue injury is a pressure-related injury to subcutaneous tissues under intact skin. Initially, these lesions have the appearance of a deep bruise. This does not match the description of the wound.
Choice D:
A stage 1 pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. This does not match the description of the wound.
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