Which blood pressure (BP) finding during the second trimester indicates a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension?

Baseline BP 140/85, current BP 129/80

Baseline BP 110/70, current BP 145/85

Baseline BP 120/80, current BP 126/85

Baseline BP 110/60, current BP 120/63

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale
This is incorrect because a decrease in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 140/85 mm Hg indicates pre-existing hypertension, which may or may not worsen during pregnancy. A current BP of 129/80 mm Hg indicates an improvement in the BP control, but not a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.

Choice B rationale
This is correct because an increase in BP from the baseline by 30 mm Hg systolic or 15 mm Hg diastolic is a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 110/70 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 145/85 mm Hg indicates a significant elevation in the BP, which could lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, or placental abruption.

Choice C rationale
This is incorrect because a slight increase in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 120/80 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 126/85 mm Hg indicates a minor elevation in the BP, which is within the normal range and does not pose a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.

Choice D rationale
This is incorrect because a slight increase in BP from the baseline is not a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension. A normal BP during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mm Hg. A baseline BP of 110/60 mm Hg indicates a normal BP before pregnancy. A current BP of 120/63 mm Hg indicates a minor elevation in the systolic BP, but a decrease in the diastolic BP, which is within the normal range and does not pose a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
This is incorrect because a client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting is not the most urgent case. This could indicate a possible pregnancy or a menstrual irregularity, but it is not a life-threatening condition. The nurse should see this client after assessing the other clients.

Choice B rationale
This is correct because a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal bleeding is the most urgent case. This could indicate a placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers the cervical opening and can cause severe hemorrhage and fetal distress. The nurse should see this client immediately and prepare for an emergency cesarean section.

Choice C rationale
This is incorrect because a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever is not the most urgent case. This could indicate a respiratory infection, which can affect the maternal and fetal well-being, but it is not a life-threatening condition. The nurse should see this client after assessing the other clients and administer antibiotics and antipyretics as prescribed.

Choice D rationale
This is incorrect because a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting is not the most urgent case. This could indicate a normal pregnancy symptom or a hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a condition where the nausea and vomiting are severe and persistent. The nurse should see this client after assessing the other clients and provide hydration and antiemetics as prescribed.

A. Client was middle aged B. forceps were used to assist with the delivery C. client had a 4th degree laceration D. She was in labor for 25 hours

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Age of the client is not a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. While age can influence overall health and pregnancy complications, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, the age of the client, in this case, does not increase the risk for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
The use of forceps during delivery can increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Forceps delivery is an assisted delivery method which can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding after delivery. In this case, the client had a forceps-assisted delivery, which could increase her risk for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
A 4th degree laceration is a severe tear that occurs during delivery, extending to the anal sphincter and rectal mucosa. This type of laceration can lead to significant blood loss and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. In this case, the client had a 4th degree laceration, which increases her risk for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
A long labor duration can increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine atony, a condition where the uterus does not contract properly after delivery, leading to increased bleeding. In this case, the client was in labor for 25 hours, which could increase her risk for postpartum hemorrhage.

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Which blood pressure (BP) finding during the second trimester indicates a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

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