Which antibiotics are classified as concentration-dependent antimicrobials?
Ciprofloxacin
Imipenem
Penicillin V
Metronidazole
Gentamicin.
The Correct Answer is E
Gentamicin is an example of a concentration-dependent antimicrobial, which means that it achieves increasing bacterial kill with increasing levels of drug. The peak concentration and the area under the concentration curve (AUC) determine the efficacy of these antibiotics. Other examples of concentration-dependent antimicrobials include fluoroquinolones, daptomycin, aminoglycosides, and amphotericin
Choice A is wrong because ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, which is also a concentration-dependent antimicrobial.
Choice B is wrong because imipenem is a carbapenem, which is a type of beta-lactam antibiotic. Beta-lactams are time-dependent antimicrobials, which means that their bactericidal activity depends on the duration of the effective concentration.
Choice C is wrong because penicillin V is another type of beta-lactam antibiotic, which is also a time-dependent antimicrobial.
Choice D is wrong because metronidazole is a bactericidal agent that has both time- and concentration-dependent properties. However, it is not classified as a concentration-dependent antimicrobial according to the AMEG categorization of antibiotics in the European Union.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Ceftriaxone belongs to the third-generation of cephalosporins.Third-generation cephalosporins have greater activity than the second-generation cephalosporins against certain gram-negative bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.They are also more resistant to beta-lactamases, enzymes that can inactivate some cephalosporins.
Choice A is wrong because first-generation cephalosporins have less activity against gram-negative bacteria and are more susceptible to beta-lactamases.
Choice B is wrong because second-generation cephalosporins have less activity against Streptococcus pneumoniae than third-generation cephalosporins, and are also less resistant to beta-lactamases.
Choice D is wrong because fourth-generation cephalosporins have a broader spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria, including some that are resistant to third-generation cephalosporins, but they are not more effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because itraconazole can cause renal impairment and decreased urine output as an adverse effect.A normal serum creatinine level is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for females.
Choice B is wrong because decreased serum potassium level is not an adverse effect of itraconazole.Itraconazole can cause hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood, but this is usually due to fluid retention and heart failure caused by the drug.A normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
Choice C is wrong because increased serum glucose level is not an adverse effect of itraconazole.Itraconazole can cause hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood, but this is usually due to diabetes mellitus or steroid use in patients taking the drug.A normal serum glucose level is 70 to 100 mg/dL.
Choice D is wrong because decreased white blood cell count is not an adverse effect of itraconazole.Itraconazole can cause leukopenia, which is a low level of white blood cells in the blood, but this is usually due to bone marrow suppression or infection in patients taking the drug.A normal white blood cell count is 4,500 to 11,000 cells/mm3.
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