A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is prescribed rifampin, an antitubercular drug. The nurse should instruct the client about which potential side effect of rifampin?
Red-orange discoloration of body fluids
Metallic taste in mouth
Photosensitivity reaction
Ototoxicity.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should instruct the client about this possibility and reassure them that it is harmless and will disappear when the medication is discontinued.
Choice B is wrong because metallic taste in mouth is not a side effect of rifampin, but of metronidazole, an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by anaerobic bacteria or protozoa.
Choice C is wrong because photosensitivity reaction is not a side effect of rifampin, but of tetracycline, an antibiotic used to treat acne and other infections.
Choice D is wrong because ototoxicity is not a side effect of rifampin, but of aminoglycosides, a class of antibiotics used to treat serious infections caused by gram-negative bacteria.
Ototoxicity can cause hearing loss or balance problems.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.Penicillin is one of the most common causes of anaphylaxis.Symptoms of anaphylaxis include difficulty breathing, swelling of the face, throat, or tongue, hives, itching, low blood pressure, and shock.
Choice A is wrong because hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood) is not a common or serious side effect of penicillin therapy.Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, cramps, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.
Choice B is wrong because hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) is not a common or serious side effect of penicillin therapy.Hyperglycemia can cause thirst, frequent urination, blurred vision, and headaches.
Choice D is wrong because constipation is not a common or serious side effect of penicillin therapy.Constipation can cause abdominal pain, bloating, and difficulty passing stools.
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
Gentamicin is an example of a concentration-dependent antimicrobial, which means that it achieves increasing bacterial kill with increasing levels of drug.The peak concentration and the area under the concentration curve (AUC) determine the efficacy of these antibiotics.Other examples of concentration-dependent antimicrobials include fluoroquinolones, daptomycin, aminoglycosides, and amphotericin
Choice A is wrong because ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, which is also a concentration-dependent antimicrobial.
Choice B is wrong because imipenem is a carbapenem, which is a type of beta-lactam antibiotic.Beta-lactams are time-dependent antimicrobials, which means that their bactericidal activity depends on the duration of the effective concentration.
Choice C is wrong because penicillin V is another type of beta-lactam antibiotic, which is also a time-dependent antimicrobial.
Choice D is wrong because metronidazole is a bactericidal agent that has both time- and concentration-dependent properties.However, it is not classified as a concentration-dependent antimicrobial according to the AMEG categorization of antibiotics in the European Union.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
