When performing a Non-Stress test, the nurse interprets the finding of two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute above the baseline rate of 135 beats per minute lasting for 15 seconds in 20 minutes.
This should be documented as:
Reactive Non-stress test.
Non-reactive Non-stress test.
Negative Non-stress test.
Positive Non-stress test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A reactive non-stress test indicates fetal well-being. The criteria for a reactive NST in a fetus greater than 32 weeks gestation include two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. The baseline fetal heart rate should be within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This client's results meet these criteria.
Choice B rationale
A non-reactive non-stress test lacks the required number of fetal heart rate accelerations or the accelerations do not meet the amplitude or duration criteria within the specified time frame. This suggests the fetus may be experiencing some form of stress and requires further evaluation.
Choice C rationale
A negative non-stress test is not a standard term used to describe NST results. The test is categorized as either reactive (indicating fetal well-being) or non-reactive (suggesting potential fetal compromise).
Choice D rationale
A positive non-stress test is also not a standard term used for NST interpretation. A positive result in fetal monitoring typically refers to a contraction stress test where late decelerations are observed, indicating potential uteroplacental insufficiency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While addressing the client's pain is important, the priority action should be to assess the underlying cause of the concerning vital signs before offering pain medication.
Choice B rationale
Positioning the client with one hip elevated is a measure used to relieve potential vena cava compression, but the low blood pressure warrants immediate attention and further evaluation before implementing this intervention.
Choice C rationale
Having the client void may be a helpful intervention in some labor situations, but the combination of a low maternal blood pressure and a high maternal heart rate requires immediate notification of the provider.
Choice D rationale
The client's low blood pressure (82/54 mm Hg) and elevated maternal heart rate (128/min) in the presence of contractions with a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes are concerning findings that warrant immediate notification of the provider for further evaluation and management. These vital signs could indicate maternal hypovolemia, dehydration, or other complications. .
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is hemorrhage as evidenced by their amount of lochia.
Rationale for correct answers
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a major concern when excessive lochia and a boggy uterus are present. The nurse’s assessment reveals a boggy fundus, which firmed with massage but then softened again, indicating uterine atony, a leading cause of PPH. Additionally, the saturation of the perineal pad with lochia rubra and small clots suggests ongoing bleeding that requires close monitoring.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Infection: No fever (≥38°C or 100.4°F) or foul-smelling lochia, which would indicate postpartum endometritis.
- Thrombophlebitis: No calf pain, swelling, or localized tenderness suggesting deep vein thrombosis.
- Mastitis: Breasts are soft, warm, and tender but without redness or localized pain, making mastitis unlikely.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Breast tenderness: Expected due to milk production, not indicative of infection or complications.
- Calf pain: No evidence of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis.
- Fever: Temperature is normal at 37.2°C, ruling out systemic infection.
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